NURSING WRITTEN TEST SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. The nurse in the immediate care clinic is assessing an 80-year-old client who lives with his son’s family and has scald burns on his hands and both forearms (first- and second-degree burns on 10% of his body surface area). What should the nurse do first? 1. Clean the wounds with warm water. 2.  Refer the client to a burn center. 3. Apply antibiotic cream. 4. Cover the burns with a sterile dressing. Answer:  2. Refer the client to a burn center. 2. Pleural effusion is also known as : 1. pneumothorax 2. hemothorax 3. hydrothorax 4. spontaneous pneumothorax Answer:

1. There has been a fire in an apartment building. All residents have been evacuated, but many are burned. Which clients should be transported to a burn center for treatment? Select all that apply. 1. An 8-year-old with third-degree burns over 10% of his body surface area (BSA). 2. A 20-year-old who inhaled the smoke of the fire. 3. A 40-year-old with second-degree burns on his right arm (about 10% of his BSA). 4. A 30-year-old with second-degree burns on the back of his left leg. 5. A 50-year-old diabetic with first- and second degree burns on his left forearm (about 5% of his BSA). Answer:

1. Which of the following systems is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration? a. Cardiac b. Pulmonary c. Musculoskeletal d. Gastrointestinal e. None of the above Answer:  b. Pulmonary 2. The nurse Mr. Aneesh P Vergees is reviewing the results of laboratory tests for a client who has AIDS. Which finding should alert the nurse that the client is at risk for a serious opportunistic infection? a)  CD4+ lymphocyte count of 350–450cells/µl b) decreased amount of human immunodeficiency virus c) 2:1 ratio of T-helper cells to T-suppressor cells d)   negative polymerase chain reaction e) None of the above Answer: 1)  CD4+ lymphocyte count of 350–450cells/µl 3. The best drug of choice to relive anxiety is a. Safinaze b. Tofranil c. Benzodiazepines d. Cogentin e. None of the above Answer: ? (Answer in the comment Box below with question Number) 4. A newborn infant is assessed using

1. A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine (Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 180/100 mmHg. The best response of the nurse to this order is to: A. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg C. Call the physician because the order is not clear D. Give the dose immediately and once Answer: D. Give the dose immediately and once 2. When ideas arise in unusual variety and pass through the mind rapidly is A. Pressure of speech B. Stereotypy of speech C. Preservation of ideas D. Pressure of thought 3. Which data should the nurse expect when taking a health history from a client diagnosed as having acute pyelonephritis? 1) recent urethral catheterization 2)  chronic urinary tract infections 3) long-standing hypertension 4) recent influenza exercises.

KEA STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTIONS 1. Which abnormal heart sound in a client recovering from a myocardial infarction should lead the nurse to suspect the onset of heart failure? 1) split S1 2)pericardial friction rub 3) ejection click 4)   gallop rhythm 2. A common problem your history may uncover is the use of medications. 1) multiple 2) illegal 3) analgesic 4) Outdated E. OTC KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Question Paper 2024 3.  A nurse asks a nursing assistant to help admit an elderly client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which activity is appropriate for the nurse to ask the assistant to perform? 1) Assess lung sounds. 2) Insert a small-bore feeding tube. 3) Obtain an arterial blood gas sample. 4) Obtain the client’s height and weight. Published by www.nursingwork.in 4. Which of the following landmarks is the corect one for obtaining an apical pulse? 1) Left second intercostal space, midclavicular line 2) Left fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line 3) Left inter

1. Where should the "heel" of the hands be placed during proper sternal CPR compression? a. 1.5 inches superior to xiphoid tip b. 3.0 inches superior to xiphoid tip c. 1.5 inches inferior to xiphoid tip d. 3.0 inches inferior to xiphoid tip 2. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that the client is at risk for which acid-base disorder? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis 3. What is the most common cause of diarrhea in a child under the age of 7? a. Bacillus cereus b. Rotavirus c. Salmonella d. Clostridium difficile

The following questions published by www.nursingwork.in  , which is useful for upcoming KEA staff Nurse recruitment written examination 1. Which part of the brain concerned with integration of effective, emotional, aspects of behavior, memories, and basic drives. A. Parasympathetic system. B. Limbic system. C. Sympathetic system D. Brain stem. 2. The nurse should suspect hypocalcemia when the client exhibits which signs? a)  tingling of the fingers, muscle spasms, and tetany b) night blindness, tachycardia, and weakness c) pale mucous membranes, shortness of breath, and lethargy d) bleeding tendencies, thirst, and hypotension 3. Exceeding which of the following serum cholesterol levels significantly increases the risk of coronary artery disease? a. l 200 mg/dl b. 150 mg/dl c. 175 mg/dl d. 100 mg/d

1. A 27 year-old sexually active female presents to her family practitioner complaining of abdominal distension, nausea, and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 15 weeks ago, which she attributes to her recent increase in exercise. Nevertheless, her physician requests a urine sample to measure levels of a glycoprotein secreted by which of the following structures? 1. Amnioblast 2. Cytotrophoblast 3. Mesonephros 4. Syncytiotrophoblast 5. Wharton's jelly Answer: 4.  Syncytiotrophoblast 2. The nurse interprets a patient's fear of being in situations or places that may be difficult or embarrassing to leave as evidence of 1. Social phobia 2. Generalized anxiety disorder 3. Agoraphobia 4. Panic disorder Answer: 1.  Social phobia 3. The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte levels of a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is common cause of digoxin toxicity? 1. Hypocalcemia. 2. Hyponatremia. 3. Hypomagnesemia. 4

A 35-year-old woman Mrs. Mohini G, has had severe watery diarrhea for the past 5 days. Two months ago, she had infectious mononucleosis. She abuses drugs intravenously and is seropositive for HIV. Physical examination shows dehydration and marked muscle weakness. 1. Which of the following laboratory abnormalities is most likely? A. Decreased serum K+ concentration B. Decreased serum Ca2+ concentration C. Increased serum HCO3- concentration D.  Increased serum Na+ concentration E. Increased serum pH Answer: D.  Increased serum Na+ concentration 2. In evaluating the cause of the diarrhea, which of the following studies is most appropriate? A. Colonic biopsy to identify Giardia lamblia B. Culture of the oral mucosa for Candida albicans C. Duodenal biopsy to identify Entamoeba histolytica D. Gastric aspirate to identify Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare E.  Stool specimen to identify Cryptosporidium Answer: E.  Stool specimen to identify Cryptosporidium 3. Further st

Model Questions for ESIC Staff Nurse Recruitment Examination conducted in the year 2016. Published by www.indgovtjob.info 1. A patient who wishes to leave the hospital prior to the completion of treatment: A. May not do so under any circumstances. B.  Must be allowed to do so. C. May do so only if the doctor agrees. D. Must sign a release form before he/she leaves. Answer: B.  Must be allowed to do so. 2. Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of the following procedures? A.  Oral medication administration B. Coronary artery bypass surgery C.   Cardiac catheterization D. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty Answer: a.  Oral medication administration 3. Pulse oximetry is used during endoscopic procedures to: A. Monitor the depth of sedation. B. Measure carbon dioxide retention levels. C. Reduce the required number of nursing staff.

Multiple choice questions for upcoming ESIC Staff Nurse Recruitment written examinations. published by www.nursingwork.in 1. The state of complete disorganization and confusion which lead to loss of identity and direction: a.  Chaos b. Bargaining c. Equilibrium d. Resistance Answer: a.  Chaos 2. 6. Which of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease cannot be corrected? a. Cigarette smoking b.  Heredity c. DM d. HPN Answer: b.  Heredity 3. Which of the following means translating the message into verbal and non verbal symbols to communicate the receiver: a. feedback b. Decoding c. Channel d.  Encoding Answer: d.  Encoding

1. What assessments should the practical nurse make initially to determine Mr. Hodory Prakash D'souza  level of consciousness? 1. Visual fields 2. Response to cold 3. Auditory acuity 4. Responses to painful stimuli  Answer:  4. Responses to painful stimuli  2. What should the practical nurse do initially for an elderly client who is suddenly shivering, reporting chills and has a temperature of 38.2 o C? 1. Cover the client with a blanket.  2. Change the client’s clothing and bed linen. 3. Provide cool, circulating air. 4. Begin oral hygiene procedures. Answer:  1. Cover the client with a blanket.  3. The practical nurse returns from break to find that the status of two clients has changed. The practical nurse now needs to assess their vital signs every 15 minutes and administer several stat. medications. In addition, a third client requires insulin. In evaluating this situation, what should the practical nurse conclude? 1. The present workload is unrealistic for

Sensory system NCLEX Questions questions published by  www.nursingwork.in Question No 1: During the initial assessment of a patient, the nurse observes the presence of bright red drainage on the eye dressing. Which of the following should be the nurse’s first action? A. Note the amount of drainage on the client’s record B. Continue to monitor the vital signs and pain C. Report the findings to the physician D. Mark the drainage on the dressing and monitor the amount and color Answer: C. Report the findings to the physician Bright red drainage on the dressing may indicate hemorrhage and must be reported to the physician immediately. Although monitoring vital signs and the client’s pain and recording the amount and color of the drainage are all important interventions, reporting the finding is the priority so emergency measures can be instituted

GI/GU Systems and GI/GU Disorders Nursing questions published at  http://nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com by  www.nursingwork.in Question No.1: The nurse administers which of the following prescribed medications to a client with recurrent urinary tract infections caused by Escherichia coli? A. Hyoscyamine sulfate (Levsin) B. Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Bactrim DS) C. Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) D. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) Answer: B. Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Bactrim DS) Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Bactrim DS) is an antibiotic and

Endocrine System and Endocrine Disorders related questions published at  http://nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com by www.nursingwork.in Question No.1: The nurse is caring for a client with myxedema. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client’s condition is deteriorating? A. An increase in pulse rate and respirations B. Cold skin and episodes of chills C. Client complaints of palpitations D. Difficulty in arousing the client for medications Answer:  D. Difficulty in arousing the client for medications The most life-threatening complication for the client with myxedema is myxedema coma. This client already has decreased metabolism and as the condition worsens, cardiac, respiratory, and neurological systems slow down even more. The client then goes into a coma and may die from circulatory and respiratory collapse. If a client with myxedema becomes unable to be aroused, the client may be progressing into a coma.

Question: When preparing a client to collect a sputum specimen, it would be essential for the nurse to explain which of the following aspects of the procedure? A. Breathe deeply followed by coughing up sputum B. Avoid mouth care prior to collecting the specimen C. Collect the specimen before bedtime D. Restrict fluids prior to expectorating sputum Answer: A. Breathe deeply followed by coughing up sputum Breathing deeply should be followed by coughing up sputum in the collection process of a sputum specimen. Mouth care should be offered prior to collecting a sputum specimen.

A client is brought to the emergency room with a third-degree heart block after experiencing an acute anterior myocardial infarction. Which of the following interventions is the priority on an emergency basis? A.Cardioversion B. Administer lidocaine C. Temporary pacemaker D. Administer atropine Answer: C. Temporary pacemaker A third-degree heart block is a lethal rhythm. It is the complete blockage of the atrial impulses into the ventricles. The block may be at the A-V node,

Musculoskeletal/Integumentary Disorders and  Oncological/Immune Disorders (Adult) Questions published by  http://nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com/ Musculoskeletal/Integumentary Disorders (Adult) related Nursing Question Question: The nurse assesses which of the following clinical manifestations in a client with osteomyelitis? Select which of the following not apply that apply: A. Night sweats B. Cool extremities C.  Restlessness D. Fever E. Nausea Answer: B. Cool extremities Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone characterized by both local and systemic manifestations. Systemic manifestations include fever, chills, night sweats, nausea, malaise, and restlessness. Oncological/Immune Disorders (Adult)  related Nursing Question Question: The nurse should instruct a client that which of the following is the most effective prevention against bladder cancer? A. Drink 8 to 10 glasses of fluid per day B. Void at least five times per day C. Take herbal supplements

Neurological Disorders (Adult) Nursing Question and Answer Published by  www.nursingwork.in Which of the following should the nurse assess to provide the most accurate information regarding a client suspected of having a C4 injury? A. Ask the client to grasp an object and make a fist B. Ask the client to straighten the flexed arms while applying resistance C. Ask the client to shrug the shoulders while applying downward pressure D. Ask the client to lift the arms while applying resistance Answer:  C. Ask the client to shrug the shoulders while applying downward pressure

Maternity Nursing Question and Answer Published by  www.nursingwork.in The nurse informs a graduate nurse on a postpartum unit that the human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) would no longer be detected in the client’s blood at: A. One hour postpartum B. Two days postpartum C. Four weeks postpartum D. One week postpartum Answer: D: 

Fundamentals of Nursing Question and Answer Published by www.nursingwork.in The nurse assesses an older client in an assisted living facility who is crying uncontrollably and who tells the nurse, “I am going to be evicted because I ran out of money to live here.” Which of the following is the priority response by the nurse? A. “I am sure something will work out for you.” B. “Can you ask any of your family for money?” C. “You will qualify for Medicaid now that you have no money.” D. “There are other financial options available to you.” Answer:  D: The priority response for the nurse to make to a client who has exhausted all personal financial resources in an assisted living facility is that there are other options available.

Psychiatric Nursing Objective Type Questions 1. A married woman with three school-age children is caring for her 80-year-old father in her home. She reports feeling overwhelmed with her responsibilities and says, “I feel like everyone wants something from me.” The nurse should give priority to which intervention in the plan of care for this family? 1) Assist family members to clarify their expectations of each other. 2) Arrange for a live-in aide to care for the client’s father. 3) Suggest that the husband and children perform more household chores. 4) Encourage the woman to find a nursing home for her father. 2. Which client statement best indicates that nursing interventions directed toward motivating the client to change behavior have been effective? 1) “I just can’t seem to pull it together.” 2) “I wish I felt better.” 3) “I can’t stand this pain any longer.” 4) “I want someone to help me.” Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper for Download   3. What is the basic pr

1. Response of neonate towards noise is called :- A. Moro reflex B. Rooting reflex C. Startle reflex D. Tonic neck reflex 2. he most common normal position of the fetus in utero is: A. Transverse position B. Vertical position C. Oblique position D. None of the above Published by  www.nursingwork.in 3. Stages of malaria fever include all except - A. Cold stage B. Hot stage C. Sweating stage D. Fever stage 4. The nerve that transmits impules towards CNS is: a. Abducens b. Auditory c. Occulomotor d. Ventral root of spinal cord 5. The fate of the drug refers to the manner in which the drug is: A. excreted B. absorbed

1. Which of the following groups of patients should receive a lower dose of lorazepam (Ativan)? a. Elder and Native-American patients b. Children and Asian patients c. Children and elder patients d. Children, elder, and Asian patients 2. Managing adequately during the first procedure, usually helps reduce the anxiety associated with future procedures. a. pain b. nausea c. anxiety d. sedation e. the family 3. . Adverse effects to olanzapine (Zyprexa) occur most commonly in the ______ system. a. central nervous b. integumentary c. cardiovascular d. gastrointestinal

1. Celecoxib is indicated for relief of symptoms of A. osteoarthritis B. cancer C. hepatitis D. muscle spasm 2. is one category of drugs likely to cause allergic reactions. A. diuretics B. antibiotics C. Digoxin D. Insulin E. antiemetics 3. A patient is being discharged after the insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which statement made by the patient indicates an understanding regarding appropriate self-care? Please choose from one of the following options. A. Every morning I will perform arm and shoulder stretches. B. Each day I’ll take my pulse and record it in a log. C. I’ll have to get rid of my microwave oven. D. I won’t be able to use my electric blanket anymore.

1. A client presents to the clinic requesting a renewal of her prescription for oxycodone (Percocet). What should the NP do? A. Decline to provide the prescription B. Renew the prescription and document the action taken C. Assess the client and conduct appropriate investigations D. Perform a medication reconciliation prior to prescribing Answer:  A. Decline to provide the prescription 2.  Which of the following symptoms might a client with right-sided heart failure exhibit? A. Adequate urine output B. Polyuria C. Polydipsia D. Oliguria Answer:   d. Oliguria 3. A father expresses concerns about his son’s upcoming surgery. The nurse listens to the father's concerns and validates his feelings. What component of the nurse-client relationship is the nurse demonstrating? A. Professional intimacy

1. Which of the following actions is the first priority care for a client exhibiting signs and symptoms of coronary artery disease? a. Decrease anxiety b. Educate the client about his symptoms c. Administer sublignual nitroglycerin d.  Enhance myocardial oxygenation Answer:  d.  Enhance myocardial oxygenation 2. A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient? a. Furosemide (Lasix). b. Calcium carbonate. c. Clarithromycin (Biaxin). d. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn) Answer: d . Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn). Published  www.nursingwork.in 3. Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions? a. Restricitve b. Hypertension

1. In which organ are nutrients absorbed and returned to the blood stream? A. esophagus B. large intestine C. small intestine D. stomach 2.  Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would indicate this complication to the nurse would be: A. Pitting edema of the area B. Intermittent claudication C. Severe pain when raising the legs D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site 3. What muscle pushes digesting food along in a wave-like action? A. tongue B. heart C. stomach D. esophagus 4. In which organ does most of digestion take place? A. gall bladder B. small intestine C. liver D. heart

1. The breakdown of___________is called " haemolysis ". A. PLTS B. WBCS C. GLUCOSE D. RBCS 2. "Ovaries " are__________in numbers. A. 2 B. 5 C. 3 D. 1 3. "INSULIN " are basicallay a ______________. a. Proteins b. Hormones c. Enzymes D. Glucose 4. "Epistaxis "means bleeding from the____________ A. Mouth B. Ear C. Nose D. None of the above

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING EXAM QUESTIONS   Questions 1 to 8 are about Sonia Chinnappa Kukkunoor, aged 45 years, who is an arranged admission to the ward for a surgical investigation, where you are working as an enrolled nurse. 1. Sonia’s blood pressure, pulse, respiration rate and temperature are recorded on admission. The reason for this is a) to give an indication of Sonia’s usual baseline recordings. b) to indicate whether Sonia is a suitable for surgery. c) to observe how anxious Sonia is. d) because it is routine for all admissions. Before surgery Sonia must sign an informed consent form for the operation. 2. Which of the following conditions must be met, to ensure the validity of Sonia’s consent for the operation? a) Her relatives must have knowledge of the procedure to be performed. b) The agreement must be witnessed by a registered medical practitioner. c) The consent must be obtained at least an hour before surgery is begun. d) She must have sufficient infor

1. Which of the following illnesses is the leading cause of death in the US? a) Cancer b) Renal failure c) HIV Disease d) Coronary artery disease e) None of the above Answer:   d. Coronary artery disease 2. A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is admitted to hospital. In caring for this patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of: a) Hemorrhage b) Subinvolution c) Dehydration d) Hypertension e) None of the above Answer:   a) Hemorrhage 3. Which of the following arteries primarily feeds the anterior wall of the heart? a) Circumflex artery b) Left anterior descending artery c) Internal mammary artery d) Right coronary artery e) None of the above Answer:   b) Left anterior descending artery 4. A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and thready pulses, hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The patient reports weight loss, lethargy, and decreased urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine

Click here to buy Nursing Objective type Questions with Answers Book 1. A clinic nurse interviews a parent who is suspected of abusing her child. Which of the following characteristics is the nurse LEAST likely to find in an abusing parent? A. Low self-esteem. B. Unemployment. C. Self-blame for the injury to the child. D. Single status. Answer:  C. Self-blame for the injury to the child. 2. The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling for a patient with cholecystitis. Which of the following information is important to communicate? A. The patient must maintain a low calorie diet. B. The patient must maintain a high protein/low carbohydrate diet. C. The patient should limit sweets and sugary drinks. D. The patient should limit fatty foods. Answer:  D. The patient should limit fatty foods. 3. Which of the following complications is indicated by a third heart sound (S3)? A. Ventricular dilation B. Systemic hypertension C. Aortic valve malfunction D. Increased atria

1. A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient who underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours previously. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern? A. Gastro Enteritis B. Viral gastroenteritis. C. Colon cancer. D. Bowel perforation Answer:  D. Bowel perforation 2. Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely used in the treatment of cardiomyopathy? a. Antihypertensive b. Beta-adrenergic blockers c. Calcium channel blockers d. Nitrates Answer:  b. Beta-adrenergic blockers 3. What is the definitive test used to diagnose an abdominal aortic aneurysm? a. Abdominal X-ray b. Arteriogram c. Ultrasound d. CT scan

1. All of the following can result from overpressurization during abdominal insufflation with CO2 except: A) Postoperative neck and shoulder pain B) Hypocarbia C) Regurgitation and aspiration D) Decreased respiratory effort and cardiac output Answer: B) Hypocarbia 2. A do-not-resuscitate order is most likely to be suspended and CPR performed if the patient experiences cardiac arrest in the preoperative period because of: A) Drug reaction B) Advanced cancer C) Acute myocardial infarction D) Sepsis Answer:  A) Drug reaction 3. A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission? A. Sexual contact with an infected partner. B. Contaminated food. C. Blood transfusion. D. Illegal drug use. Answer:  Click here 4. Metoclopramide may be given as a preoperative medication in order to: A) Relieve discomfort B) To control secretions C) Relieve apprehension D) Reduce risk of as

1. Four clients arrive in the emergency room. Which client should receive priority? a) The client with burns of the chest and neck b) The client with gastroenteritis c) The client with a migraine headache d) The client with a fractured tibia Answer:  a) The client with burns of the chest and neck 2.  The nurse observes the nursing assistant speaking harshly to an elderly client. Which action is most appropriate? a) Ask the nursing assistant to speak in a lower tone because he is disturbing the other clients b) Report the nursing assistant to the charge nurse c) Reassign the nursing assistant to a younger client d) Call the nursing assistant aside to discuss the observation Answer: 3.A category four tornado has injured 50 people from the community. The nurse is responsible for in field triage. According to triage protocol, which client should betreated last? a) The 30-year-old with lacerations to the neck and face b) The 70-year-old with chest pain and short

1. A patient Named Deepa George with a history of diabetes mellitus is in the second post-operative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse Reena enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms? a. Anesthesia reaction. b. Diabetic ketoacidosis. c. Hypoglycemia. d.  Hyperglycemia. e. None of the Above Answer:  C. Hypoglycemia. 2. Atherosclerosis impedes coronary blood flow by which of the following mechanisms? a. Plaques obstruct the vein b. Hardened vessels dilate to allow the blood to flow through c. Blood clots form outside the vessel wall d. Plaques obstruct the artery e. None of the Above Answer:  d. Plaques obstruct the artery 3. Nurse Mr. Kavya Shree caring for several patients on the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator.

The nurse informs a graduate nurse on a postpartum unit that the human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) would no longer be detected in the client’s blood at: A) One week postpartum B) Two days postpartum C) Four weeks postpartum D) One hour postpartum Answer: A) One week postpartum

1. When nurses are assigned specific tasks for care of patients is referred as : 1) functional method 2) patient method 3) team method 4)  Nursing method 5) None of the above 2. Nurse researcher can use one of the following methods for collecting data from large number of people : 1) Questionnaire 2) Survey Method 3) Discussion 4) Telephonic interview 5) None of the above 3. Nurse researcher should review all of the following before conducting a study except : 1) Old research reports 2) Only published documents 3) Journals 4) Thesis

1. Number of subordinates an administrator can control or supervise is known as : (1) unity of command (2) span of control (3) delegation (4) hierarchy 2. All of the following points should be kept in mind while doing any sterile procedure except : 1) face the sterile field 2) keep sterile equipment below the waist level 3) never cross sterile area 4) do not speak over sterile field 3.Passive range of motion is performed by A. The person B. A health team member C. The person with little help D. The person with the use of a trapeze 4. Nurse must observe one of the following side effects in a patient who is on antipsychotics 1) Arrhythmia 2) Hypertension 3) Extra Pyramidal symptom 4) Anorexia 5.Objective data is: a. Information that is collected through the care giver's senses about the patient b. Information that is reported by the patient c. A verbal account of patient care and observation d. The exchange of information 6. While nursing the patient

25 IMPORTANT NURSING EXAM QUESTIONS FOR DOWNLOAD 1. When ANS of one unit communicates decision regarding training of nursing personnel with ANS of another unit it is an example of : (1) horizontal communication (2) diagonal communication (3) vertical communication (4) upward communication 2. A neonate weighing less than 2500 gms at birth irrespective of the gestational age is referred as : (1) term baby (2) low birth weight baby (3) very low birth weight baby (4) pre term baby 3. Non verbal communication includes 1. Body language 2. Talking 3. Shouting 4. All of the above 4. If you patient is in traction you should not 1. Change the position of the weights 2. Monitor the patient's vital signs 3. Give a total bed bath 4. Report weights that are on the floor 5. Number of subordinates an administrator can control or supervise is known as : (1) unity of command (2) hierarchy (3) delegation (4) span of control 6. Mr. Burns just smoked a cigarette. Y

1. When an individual expresses his failures and difficulties by blaming others is known as : (1) sublimation (2) projection (3) repression (4) denial 2. The normal value of pH of blood is : (1) 7.4 (2)7.2 (3) 7.5 (4) 7.3 3. When thoughts are too quick without association it is called : (1) flight of ideas (2) mannerisms (3) catalespy (4) clang association 4. Normal bleeding time is : (1) 1 - 5 minutes (2) 1 - 4 minutes (3) 1 - 3 minutes (4) 1 - 2 minutes 5. Patient with mania are having all of the following symptoms except : 1) elated and unstable mood 2) increased motor activity 3) increased pressure of speech 4) sluggish and fatigue 6. All the following are types of bones except : (1) long bones (2) short bones (3) flat bones (4) regular bones 7. Primary symptoms of schizophrenia are all except : (1) Autistic thinking (2) Appropriate response (3) Auditory hallucination (4) Ambivalence 8. Normal urine output for an adult during 24

1. A 35 year old 40 kg male patient was diagnosed to be a case of pulmonary tuberculosis.  The appropriate conventional regimen of antitubercular drugs would be: (a) Rifampicin 450 mg + Isoniazid 300 mg + Pyrazinamide 1500 mg (b)  Rifampicin 450 mg + Isoniazid 200 mg + Pyrazinamide 1500 mg  (c) Rifampicin 450 mg + Isoniazid 200 mg + Pyrazinamide 1000 mg (d)   Rifampicin 600 mg + Isoniazid 300 mg + Pyrazinamide 1000 mg 2. The Chief of laparoscopic surgery asked his assistant to give him a laparoscopic port which has absolutely no chance of “capacitance coupling” during laparoscopic surgery. Which port should the assistant give to the Chief? (a) Metal laparoscopic port (b) Metal port with plastic cuff (c) Partial plastic port (d) Complete plastic port 3. Which of the auscultatory signs is absent in mitral stenosis in the presence of atrial fibrillation? (a)  Variable first heart sound (b) Pre -systolic accentuation (c)  Mid diastolic murmur (d) P2 accentuation 4

1.Which of the following about foot care is incorrect A. Feet are easily infected and injured B. Nursing Assistants use scissors to cut toenails C. Dirty feet and dirty socks can harbor microbes D. Cleaning toenails is easier afer soaking 2. A patient is sobbing. What is the best thing for the nursing assistant to say? a. “Stop crying.” b. “Don’t be a baby.” c. “Cheer up.” d. “You appear sad.” 3. A patient has had hip surgery. Her legs should be: a. abducted b. adducted c. in the most comfortable position for the patient d. elevated 4. A patient rings for the bedpan while visitors are in the room. The nurses’ assistant should: a. wait until the visitors leave b. give the bedpan to the patient in front of family c. ask the visitors to leave the room during the procedure d. ask the supervisor what to do 5. A patient complains of pain. A nurses’ aide who has completed the basic certified nurses’ aide course should: a. get the patient some pain medication.

1. Universal precautions are used for a-all people b-persons who have AIDS c-persons with colds d-persons with Hepatitis B 2. Before performing any procedure a nurses’ aide must: a. identify the patient b. wash your hands c. explain the procedure d. all the above. 3.When performing patient care you must wash your hands a-before patient care b-after patient care c-before and after patient care d-when you think your hands are dirty 4. The circulatory system consists of the: a. heart, arteries, veins and capillaries. b. blood vessels, arteries, veins and capillaries c. heart, aorta, pulmonary vessels, lungs d. blood vessels, lymph nodes, spleen 5. A patient has a diagnosis of psoriasis. Her nurses’ aide should: a. avoid contact with the highly contagious lesions. b. wear gloves for patient care. c. treat her the same as any other patient with a non-infectious disease. d. wear a mask when entering the room. 6. It is important that dressings remain: a. tigh

RCC STAFF NURSE RECRUITMENT EXAM MODEL QUESTIONS published by http://nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com / 1. A patient who has been depressed and complaining of feeling hopeless suddenly appears happier one morning and says that everything is okay now. A good nurses’ aide: a. congratulates the patient on getting better. b. watches more closely. c. voices concern to the rest of the staff. d. b. and c. 2. Which does not prevent or reduce odors A. Placing fresh flowers in the room B. Emptying bedpans promptly C. Using room deodorizers D. Practicing good personal hygiene 3. Which of the following is not true of blindness? a. Most legally blind or visually-impaired people have no sight at all. b. Diabetes is an important cause of blindness. c. Always identify yourself before touching a blind person. d. Ask if a blind person needs help before giving assistance. 4. Drainage bags from urinary catheters should always: a. be kept below the level of the bladde

1. Insulin, a hormone, regulates: A. The rhythm of the heart B. The amount of salt retained in the blood C. The strength of the skeletal muscles D. The amount of sugar in the blood 2. Which of the following is a right of residents in a nursing facility? A. Smoking in their room B. Making as much noise as they want C. Refusing treatment ordered by the doctor D. To take all the drugs they want 3. When assisting a blind resident to walk it is important to: A. Hold the resident's elbow B. Stand slightly behind them C. Have him use a white cane D. Allow the resident to hold your arm 4. When caring for a confused resident what should a nursing assistant do? A. Give simple directions B. Give the patient activities C. Say nothing D. Allow the patient to plan daily activities 5. You are assigned to care for a new resident. You do not know what to call her. You should introduce yourself then: A. Call her by her first name B. Call her "dear" or &q