1. The concept that a subordinate should have only one superior to whom he or she is directly
responsible is known as:
(a) Span of control.
(b) Unity of command.
(c) Chain of command.
(d) Authority control.

2. Which one of the following appraisal methods combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents
and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance?
(a) Forced distribution
(b) Alternation ranking
(c) Behaviourally anchored rating scale
(d) Graphic rating scale

3. A ‘SMART’ mnemomic criterion is used in:
(a) Selection process.
(b) Job rotation.
(c) Performance management.
(d) Compensation management.

4. Outplacement is the process of:
(a) removal of employees from the job.
(b) transferring the employee out of the country.
(c) helping redundant employees to find new job.
(d) sending the employee on deputation to other organizations

5. The principles of natural justice have emanated from:
(a) religious doctrines.
(b) constitutional law.
(c) common law.
(d) social norms.

6. If an aggrieved employee is NOT satisfied with the proceedings of the enquiry, he may ask for:
(a) ‘ex-parte’ enquiry.
(b) ‘de-novo’ enquiry.
(c) legal enquiry.
(d) domestic enquiry

7. In case of disciplinary action, the principles of natural justice have given rise to which one of the
following procedural safeguards?
(a) Charge-sheet
(b) Punishment without enquiry
(c) Disproportionate punishment
(d) First information report


1. Which of the following is a longer acting insulin?
(a) Aspart
(b) Glulisine
(c) Lispro
(d) Glargine
(e) All the above

2. Which one of the following diseases is deficient in Glycoprotein IIbIIIa (GpIIbIIIa) platelet receptor?
(a) Von  Willebrand’s disease
(b) Glanzmann’s disease
(c) Bernard‐Souler syndrome
(d) Storage pool disease

3. Which of the following is not found in severe Beta thalassemia?
(a) Hepatospleenomegaly
(b) Growth retardation
(c) Bone deformities
(d) Haemoglobin level of 7 to 8 gm percent

4. Polycythemia may be seen with all of the following except :
(a) Heavy smokers
(b) High altitude
(c) Renal cell carcinoma
(d) Congenital heart disease with left to right shunt

5. Hypertension and hypokalaemia are observed in which one of the following conditions?
(a) Renal artery stenosis
(b) Cushing’s syndrome
(c) GBS
(d) Barter’s syndrome
(e) None of the above

6. Which one of the following  cardiac enzymes does not remain elevated for more than 48 hours after myocardial infarction?
(a) Aspartate amino transferase
(b) Troponin T
(c) Lactic dehydrogenase
(d) Creatinine kinase M B


1. As a client progresses through pregnancy, she develops constipation. What is the primary cause of this problem during pregnancy?
A. Decreased appetite
B. Inadequate fluid intake
C. Prolonged gastric emptying
D. Reduced intestinal motility

Answer: D. Reduced intestinal motility

2. The nurse Kannika Raj is caring for a client in her 34th week of pregnancy who wears an external monitor. Which statement by the client would indicate an understanding of the nurse's teaching?
A. "I'll need to lie perfectly still."
B. "You won't need to come in and check on me while I'm wearing this monitor."
C."I can lie in any comfortable position, but I should stay off my back."
D. "I know that the external monitor increases my risk of a uterine infection."

3. Which of the following functions would the nurse expect to be unrelated to the placenta?
A. Production of estrogen and progesterone
B. Detoxification of some drugs and chemicals
C. Exchange site for food, gases, and waste
D. Production of maternal antibodies 

103. The nurse Shamili Chandrashekar obtains the antepartum history of a client who's 6 weeks pregnant. Which finding should the nurse discuss with the client first?
A. Her participation in low-impact aerobics three times per week
B. Her consumption of six to eight cans of beer on weekends
C. Her consumption of four to six small meals daily
D. Her practice of taking a multivitamin supplement daily

4. A client Named Sharadha, 38 years, visits the nurse practitioner for a regular prenatal check-up. She's 32 weeks pregnant. When assessing her, the nurse Reena should stay especially alert for signs and symptoms of:
A. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH).
B. Iron deficiency anemia.
C. Cephalopelvic disproportion.
D. Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

Answer: A. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH).

5. The nurse Reeta John is providing care for a pregnant client in her second trimester. Glucose tolerance test results show a blood glucose level of 160 mg/dl. The nurse should anticipate that the client will need to:
A. Start using insulin.
B. Start taking an oral antidiabetic drug.
C. Monitor her urine for glucose.
D. Be taught about diet.

Answer: D. be taught about diet.

6. The nurse Chandravathi Nair is planning care for a 15-year-old client in the prenatal clinic. Adolescents are prone to which complication during pregnancy?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Varicosities
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Gestational diabetes


1. The treatment protocol for a client with acute lymphatic leukemia includes prednisone and cimetadine. The purpose of the cimetadine is to:

A. Decrease the secretion of pancreatic enzymes
B. Enhance the effectiveness of methotrexate
C. Increase digestion 
D. Prevent a common side effect of prednisone 

Answer: D. Prevent a common side effect of prednisone 

2. The Nurse Pramitha is teaching the client with insulin-dependent diabetes the signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following signs is associated with hypoglycemia?

A. Tremulousness 
B. decreased pulse rate
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Flushed skin

Answer: A. Tremulousness 

3. Which of the following conditions is most likely related to the development of renal calculi?

A. Gout 
B. Pancreatitis
C. Fractured femur

Answer: A. Gout 

4. The LPN is preparing to administer an injection of vitamin K to the newborn. The nurse should administer the injection in the:

A. Rectus femoris muscle
B. Vastus lateralis muscle 
C. Hand or Buttocks
D. Dorsogluteal muscle

Answer: B. Vastus lateralis muscle 

5. The nurse Seema George is caring for a client with detoxification from alcohol. Which medication is used in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal?

A. Antabuse (disulfiram)
B. Perinorm (Metaclopramide)
C. Dolophine (methodone)
D. Ativan (lorazepam) 

Answer: D. Ativan (lorazepam) 

6. The physician Dr. Salma has prescribed Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide) for a client with nephotic syndrome. The nurse Salima should:

A. Encourage the client to drink extra fluids 

B. Request a low-protein diet for the client
C. Bathe the client using only mild soap and water


1. Mr. Ramesh,  24 year old client has been admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia says to the nurse Reeta “Yes, its march, March is little woman”. That’s literal you know”. These statement illustrate:

A. Neologisms
B. Echolalia
C. Flight of ideas
D. Loosening of association 

Answer: D. Loosening of association 

2. A nursing care plan for a male client with bipolar I disorder should include:

A. Providing a structured environment
B. Designing activities that will require the client to maintain contact with reality
C. Engaging the client in conversing about current affairs
D. Touching the client provide assurance

Answer: A. Providing a structured environment

3. A long term goal for a paranoid male client who has unjustifiably accused his wife of having many extramarital affairs would be to help the client develop:

A. Insight into his behavior
B. Better self control
C. Feeling of self worth
D. Faith in his wife

Answer: C. Feeling of self worth

4. Nurse Pavithra is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with Catatonic Stupor. When Nurse Pavithra enters the client’s room, the client is found lying on the bed with a body pulled into a fetal position. Nurse Pavithra should?

A. Ask the client direct questions to encourage talking
B. Rake the client into the dayroom to be with other clients
C. Sit beside the client in silence and occasionally ask open-ended question
D. Leave the client alone and continue with providing care to the other clients

Answer: C. Sit beside the client in silence and occasionally ask open-ended question

5. Nurse Kavitha is caring for a client with delirium and states that “look at the spiders on the wall”. What should the nurse respond to the client?

A. “You’re having hallucination, there are no spiders in this room at all”
B. “I can see the spiders on the wall, but they are not going to hurt you”
C. “Would you like me to kill the spiders”
D. “I know you are frightened, but I do not see spiders on the wall” 

Answer: D. “I know you are frightened, but I do not see spiders on the wall” 


1. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester? 
a) Incontinence
b) Frequency 
c) Dysuria 
d) Burning

2. A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following as the cause? 
a) The large size of the newborn 
b) Pressure on the pelvic muscles 
c) Relaxation of the pelvic joints 
d) Excessive weight gain

3. Variation on the length of menstrual cycle is due to variations in the number of days in which of the following phase?  
a) excretion phase
b) Mentrual phase
c) Proliferative phase
d) Secretory phase

4. What do you call the vague pain on either right or left lower quadrant that is sometimes felt by a woman during ovulation?  

a)  Dysmenorrhea
b) Dyspareuni
c) Mettelschmerz 
d) Spinnbarkeit

5. Fever, foul lochial discharge and subinvolution of the uterus are signs of: 
a) puerperal sepsis 
b) puerperal psychosis
c)  hypertensive disorder
d) postpartum hemorrhage 

6. A nursing department in an acute care setting decides to redesign its nursing practice based on a theoretical framework. The feedback from patients, families, and staff reflects that caring is a key element. Which theorist best supports this concept?
a)  Maslow
b) Erikson
c) Watson
d) Rogers  


1. The Hamstring injury, which is most common in athletes of all sorts, causes severe pain in which part of the body? 

a) Elbow Joint
b) Leg
c) Scapula
d) Head

Answer: b) Leg 

2. “Four Comprehensives” is a new political theory unveiled by which country?

b) China
c) Indonesia
d) South Africa

Answer: b) China

3. Which among the following will be the base currency for BRICS New Development Bank?

a) Indian Rupee
b) Rupaiah
c)US Dollar
d) Kwacha

Answer: c)US Dollar

4. Which one of the following is considered as inexpensive future energy option?

a) Dimethoxyethane. 
b) Dimethyl ether
c) Polyethylene glycol 
d) Dimethoxy glycol


1) Exposure to sunlight helps a person improve his health because

a) The ultraviolet rays convert skin oil into Vitamin D

b) Body resistance power increases

c) The pigment cells in the skin get stimulated and produce a healthy tan

d) The infrared light kills bacteria and viruses in the body

Answer: a) The ultraviolet rays convert skin oil into Vitamin D

2) Human Body Contains how many percentage of Water

a) Seventy Percentage

b) Sixty Percentage

c) Sixty Six Percentage

d) Fifty Percentage

Answer: Sixty Six Percentage

3) Cells related to _________ divide remarkably faster than other cells in the body.

a) Hair

b) Nose

c) Eye Sight

d) Nerves

Answer: a) Hair

4) The smallest bone in the human body is about the size of:

a) Grain of a Rice

b) Tip of Nail

c) Eye of a peacock

d) Honey Bee

Answer: a) Grain of a Rice


1. A trial septal defect occurs due to the persistence of:

a) Formen ovale
b) Mitral valve
c) Ductus venosus
d) Ductus arteriosis 

Answer: a) Formen ovale

2. Discolouration of teeth is caused by a kind of antibiotics called

a) Streptomycin 
b) Neomycin 
c) Tetracycline
d) Penicillin

Answer: b) Neomycin 

3. Total weight gain during pregnancy is  
a) 7-8 kg 
b)  13-14 kg 
c) 10-11 kg
d) 15-16 kg

Answer: b)  13-14 kg 

4. .... ......... is the permanent method of sterilization.

a) MTP 
b) D & C
c) Tubectomy 
d) Diaphragm 

Answer: c) Tubectomy 

5. Mode of transmission of Pertussis: 

a) Faecoral
b) Through contaminated water  
c) Droplet infection 
d) Vector transmission 

Answer: d) Vector transmission 


1. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is

(a) 10-99 degree C 
b) 20-79 degree C 
c)  20-60 degree C
d)10-60 degree C 

Answer: d)10-60 degree C 

2. All are components of under five clinic except

a) patient referral treatment  
b) growth monitoring 
c) oral rehydration 
d) immunization 

answer: a) patient referral treatment  

3. Zero dose of polio vaccine means

a) no vaccination
b) no antibody response
c) dose before first dose
d) vaccination at mobile camps

Answer: c) dose before first dose

4. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except

a)  1-10% formalin
b) 1% crude phenol
c) 5% cresol 
d) 8% bleaching powder 

Answer: (a)  1-10% formalin

5.The control of .............. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease

a) mosquito 
b) rat flea 
c)  cyclops
d) sand fly 

Answer: c)  cyclops

6. Hind Kusht Nivaran Sangh is a voluntary agency related to the disease:

a) Tuberculosis
b) Filaria
c) Malaria 
d) Leprosy

Answer: d) Leprosy


1. Quickening means:

a) Hearing of the fetal heart sound
b) Make or become faster or quicker.
c) The movement of the feuts in the uterus felt by the mother
d)Sudden cessation of Menstruation 

2.Typhoid is transmitted through –

a) Water and food 
b) Air
c) Touch 
d) Personal contact

3. Mode of transmission of Pertussis:

a) Vector transmission 
b) Faecoaral
c) Droplet infection
d) Through contaminated water

4. The most common from of malnutrition are the following except

a) Beri-beri
b) Kwashiorkor 
c) Marasmus 
d) Protein energy malnutrition 

5. The following organs are situated in the abdominal cavity except:

a) Stomach 
b) Oesophagus 
c) liver 
d) Spleen



1. which of following is the characterstic feature of GB syndrome?
a) Ascending weakness
b) Fever
c) Vomiting continuously for a period of 1 weak.
d) Pain in Abdomen and pelvis

Answer: a) Ascending weakness

2) What is the major reason of MMR during pregnancy in india?
a) Malnutrition 
b) Hemorrhage
c) Lack of Hospitals
d) Lack of Gynaecologist

Answer: Hemorrhage

3) Causative agent of dengue?
a) Plasmodium
b) Anaphilis
c) Vivax
d) Aedes

Ans. Aedes

4) After above knee amputation of right leg ,Which position should be given?
a) Prone position
b) Supine Position
c) Left lateral position
d) Supine with elevatal the stump.

Ans- Supine with elevatal the stump.

5) A child with red gelly like stool is indicated diagnosis of-
a) Intususception
b) Gastro Enteritis
c) Bowel infection
d) Diarrhea 

Ans- Intususception

6) Which drug is used for the maturation of lung in a pre mature baby-
a) Atropin
b). dexamethasone
c) Hydrocortisone
d) Deriphyiline

Answer: b). dexamethasone


1. The most potent greenhouse gas among the following is __?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Water Vapor
d. Ozone

Answer: Water Vapor

2. Potassium nitrate is used in ___________
a) Fetiliser
b) Medicine
c) Soda
d) Bleeching Powder

Answer: a) Fetiliser

3. Which among the following blood groups has A and B antigens on RBC (Red Blood Cells) ?
a. O
b. AB
c. B
d. A

Answer: AB

4. Brass gets discoloured in air because of the presence of which of the following gases in air?  
a. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen sulphide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Oxygen

Answer: Hydrogen sulphide


1. Who among the following has been honoured with Dadabhai Naoroji Award for Culture by the UK government?
A. Pandith dheerobai
B. Asha Kuriyan
C. Madhav Sharma
D. Banki moon

2. G. Sathiyan has jumped to No.1 spot in the National rankings list. Which game does he represent? 

a) Table-Tennis
b) Cricket
c) Foot Ball
d) Hockey

3. Who has been awarded as the best Central Bank Governor of the Year award 2014?

a) Raghavan rao
b) Raghuram Rajan
c) Janet Yellen
d) Keshav Madavlal

4. Which of the following countries has recently launched "Gandhi Inspired Tourist Attraction project"? 

a) South Africa
b) India
c) Indonesia
d) Korea