1. During the emergent (resuscitative) phase of burn injury, which of the following indicates that the client is requiring additional volume with fluid resuscitation?
A. Hourly urine output of 60 mL.
B.  Little fluctuation in daily weight.
C. Serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL.
D. Serum albumin level of 3.8.
E. None of the above

Answer: C. Serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL.

2Monitoring of MgSO4 therapy for eclampsia is done using all except:
A. Urine output
B. Serum magnesium levels
C. Fundus examination
D. Knee jerks
E. None of the above

3.  The nurse teaches a client with acute renal failure about follow-up care. Which client statement indicates that the nurse’s teaching was successful?
A)I will have periodic laboratory tests to monitor my progress.
B) I need to decrease my protein intake to protect my kidneys.
C)  I need to take antibiotics to avoid infections.


1.Hormones that promote the re-absortion of water by nephron is:
A. Androgen
B. Oxytocin
C. Parathormone
D. Vasopressin
E.  None of the above

2. What is the correct amount of fluid for the treatment of severe dehydration in a two
year old baby?
A. 30 ml/kg in first half hour and 70 ml/kg in next two and half hours
B. 50 ml/kg in first hour and 50 ml/kg in next 5 hours
C. 30 ml/kg in first hour and 70 ml/kg in next 5 hours
D. 50 ml/kg in first half hour and 50 ml/kg in next two and half hours
E.  None of the above

3. Most common laser used in laryngeal surgery is?
A. Argon laser
B. Nd YAG laser
C. CO2 laser
D. KTP laser


1. After the nurse has administered droperidol,care is taken to move the client slowly based on the knowledge of droperidol's effect on the:
1. CNS
2. Respiratory system
3. Cardiovascular system
4. Psychoneurologic system

2. During the emergent (resuscitative) phase of burn injury, which of the following indicates that the client is requiring additional volume with fluid resuscitation?
1. Serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL.
2. Serum albumin level of 3.8.
3. Hourly urine output of 60 mL.
4. Little fluctuation in daily weight.

3. The nurse assesses V/S on a client who has had epidural anesthesia.For which of the symptoms should the nurse assess next?
1. bladder distention
2. headache
3. post operative pain
4. ability to move the legs.

4. A client who is scheduled for an open cholecystectomy has a 20-pack-year history of smoking. For which postop complications is the client most at risk?
1. deep vein thrombosis
2. prolonged immobility
3. delayed wound healing
4. atelectasis and pneumonia


ESIC Staff Nurse Exam Questions(Multiple choice) published by www.nursingwork.in at www.nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com on 14/01/2016
 1. A murmur is heard at the second left intercostal space along the left sternal border.
Which valve area is this?
a. Pulmonic
b. Mitral
c. Aortic
d. Tricuspid

Answer: a. Pulmonic

2. A patient is leaving the hospital. The family has been told to give her her medications bid. The wife asks what that means. The nurses’ aide tells her to give the medication:
a. only when needed.
b. three times a day.
c. once a day.
d. twice a day.

Answer: d. twice a day.

3. Which of the following factors would have
the least influence on the survival and effectiveness
of a burn victim’s porcine grafts?
a. Use of analgesics as necessary for pain relief.
b. Adequate vascularization in the grafted area.
c. Immobilization of the area being grafted.
d.  Absence of infection in the wounds.

Answer: a. Use of analgesics as necessary for pain relief.

4. NO.10 A newborn is diagnosed with ventricular septal defect. The baby is discharged with a
prescription for digoxin syrup 20 micrograms bid. The bottle of digoxin is labeled as 0.05 mg/ml. The
nurse should teach the mother to administer on each dose:
a. 0.8 ml
b. 0.4 ml
c. 0.3 ml
d. 0.8 ml

Answer: b. 0.4 ml

5.  A nurses’ assistant notices red marks on a resident’s back and buttocks.
The aide acts in the knowledge that:
a. red marks are not a problem.
b. it takes a doctor’s order to rub skin with lotion.
c. patients can only be turned every two hours.
d. the skin can break down if nothing is done.

Answer: d. the skin can break down if nothing is done.

6.  What is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. Hypertension
b. DM
c.  Atherosclerosis
d. Syphilis

Answer: c.  Atherosclerosis


THe following objective type/multiple choice nursing exam questions ans answers are useful for upcoming ESIC, AIIMS and other staff nurse recruitment written examinations.

1. A patient known to have Alzheimer’s disease tells the nurses’ assistant
that she smells smoke. The nurses aide should:
a. put the patient to bed because she is clearly tired.
b. tell her that no one is allowed to smoke in the building.
c. look around for a fire.
d. reassure the patient that there is no fire.
e. None of the above

Answer: c. look around for a fire.

2. Which hereditary disease is most closely linked to aneurysm?
a. Marfan's syndrome
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Myocardial infarction
e. None of the above

Answer: a. Marfan's syndrome

3. A patient appears more pale than usual. The nurses’ aide should:
a. note it on the chart.
b. offer a glass of water.
c. get the patient a snack.
d.  ask the patient how he feels and take his vital signs immediately.
e. None of the above

Answer: d.  ask the patient how he feels and take his vital signs immediately.

4. What is the most appropriate nursing response to a myocardial infarction client who is fearful of dying?
a. "Please be assured we're doing everything we can to make you feel better."
b. "When the doctor arrives, everything will be fine."
c. "This is a bad situation, but you'll feel better soon."
d. "Tell me about your feeling right now."
e. None of the above

Answer: d. "Tell me about your feeling right now."


1. Lithotomy position is given to a patient in all of the following conditions except :
A)  rectal examination
B) enema
C) Delivery
D) catheterization

2. A potential concern when caring for an older adult who has diminished hearing and vision would be the client’s:
A)Cognitive impairment.
B) Social isolation.
C) Sensory overload.
D) Feelings of disorientation.
E) None of the Above

3. What is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A) Atherosclerosis
D) Syphilis
E) None of the Above


1. A 62 yr old diabetic man comes to the physician for followup. He recently had diabetic screening tests, including urine microalbumin check, foot exam, and Hb A1c. Having failed oral therapy, diabetes is now well controlled with insulin. Lab values and foot exam are within normal range. During the man's annual eye exam three months ago, fundoscopy revealed diffuse, opaque white spots throughout the fundus, a few scattered hard exudates, and multiple small microaneurysms. Visual exam is 20/20 OS and 20/25 OD. He denies floaters, diplopia, or blurred vision. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A.  Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Macular edema
C. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy
D. Age related ocular changes

Answer: C. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy

2.. A one and Half year old boy is diagnosed with a degenerative disease involving the basal ganglia. Further studies show less than 1 % normal activity of the enzyme hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT). Which of the following enzymes is most likely to show increased activity in this patient?
A. Arginase
B. Xanthine oxidase
C. 3,4 dihydroxy phenylalanine (dopa) decarboxylase
D. Mitochondrial carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

Answer: B. Xanthine oxidase

3. A 68 yr old man is diagnosed with colon cancer during a routine screening. He gets an abdominal CT scan to check for metastasis. No metastatic lesions are found but the gallbladder has significant intramural calcification. The calcified walls are thickened though there is no pericholecystitic fluid present. There's no history of abdominal pain and the man report feeling healthy. In addition to surgical resection of colon cancer, which is the most appropriate treatment for the calcified gallbladder?
A. Prophylactic open cholecystectomy
B. Medical treatment with ursodeoxycholic acid
C. Repeat CT scans at 6 months and 1 yr
D. Reassurance that the finding is inconsequential

Answer: A. Prophylactic open cholecystectomy

4. A 47 year old woman comes to the physician because of poor sleep, general weakness, fatigue, mood disturbances, headache, musculoskeletal pain, and joint tenderness for the last seven months. Her recent lab report of CBC, ESR, basic metabolic panel, TFTs, muscle enzymes, urinalysis, ECG, chest xray were within normal limits. Physical exam was significant for multiple areas of joint tenderness. What is the most appropriate initial management in this patient?
A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
B. Prednisone
C. Fluoxetine
D. Amitriptyline

Answer: D. Amitriptyline

5. A 3 yr old caucasian girl is brought to the ER because of severe cough with sputum, fever, and rapid breathing. The cough started 1 month ago with sputum and has become persistent. Her past medical history is significant for prolonged neonatal jaundice and 2-3 episodes of bronchiolitis at the age of  six and twelve months. Temp is 101.8. Exam reveals tachypnea, nasal polyps and coarse breath sounds on auscultation. Pulse oximetry shows O2 saturation of 87%. Chest X-ray shows hyperinflation with patchy consolidations. She is below the 5th percentile for height and weight. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. IV ceftazidime with tobramycin
B. Histopathologic analysis of nasal polyps
C.Pilocarpine iontophoresis test
D. IV levofloxacin

Answer: A. IV ceftazidime with tobramycin


1. The nurse in the immediate care clinic is assessing an 80-year-old client who lives with his son’s family and has scald burns on his hands and both forearms (first- and second-degree burns on 10% of his body surface area). What should the nurse do first?

1. Clean the wounds with warm water.
2. Refer the client to a burn center.
3. Apply antibiotic cream.
4. Cover the burns with a sterile dressing.

Answer: 2. Refer the client to a burn center.

2. Pleural effusion is also known as :
1. pneumothorax
2. hemothorax
3. hydrothorax
4. spontaneous pneumothorax



1. There has been a fire in an apartment building. All residents have been evacuated, but many are burned. Which clients should be transported to a burn center for treatment? Select all that apply.
1. An 8-year-old with third-degree burns over 10% of his body surface area (BSA).
2. A 20-year-old who inhaled the smoke of the fire.
3. A 40-year-old with second-degree burns on his right arm (about 10% of his BSA).
4. A 30-year-old with second-degree burns on the back of his left leg.
5. A 50-year-old diabetic with first- and second degree burns on his left forearm (about 5% of his BSA).



1. Which of the following systems is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration?
a. Cardiac
b. Pulmonary
c. Musculoskeletal
d. Gastrointestinal
e. None of the above

Answer: b. Pulmonary

2. The nurse Mr. Aneesh P Vergees is reviewing the results of laboratory tests for a client who has AIDS. Which finding should alert the nurse that the client is at risk for a serious opportunistic infection?
a) CD4+ lymphocyte count of 350–450cells/µl
b) decreased amount of human immunodeficiency virus
c) 2:1 ratio of T-helper cells to T-suppressor cells
d) negative polymerase chain reaction
e) None of the above

Answer: 1) CD4+ lymphocyte count of 350–450cells/µl

3. The best drug of choice to relive anxiety is
a. Safinaze
b. Tofranil
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Cogentin
e. None of the above

Answer: ? (Answer in the comment Box below with question Number)

4. A newborn infant is assessed using the Apgar assessment tool and scores 6. The infant has a
heart rate of 90, slow and irregular respiratory effort, and some flexion of extremities. The infant is
pink, but has a weak cry. The nurse should know that this Apgar score along with the additional
symptoms indicates the neonate is:


1. A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 180/100 mmHg. The best response of the
nurse to this order is to:
A. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Give the dose immediately and once

Answer: D. Give the dose immediately and once

2. When ideas arise in unusual variety and pass through the mind rapidly is
A. Pressure of speech
B. Stereotypy of speech
C. Preservation of ideas
D. Pressure of thought

3. Which data should the nurse expect when taking a health history from a client diagnosed as having acute pyelonephritis?
1) recent urethral catheterization
2) chronic urinary tract infections
3) long-standing hypertension
4) recent influenza exercises.


1. Which abnormal heart sound in a client recovering from a myocardial infarction should lead the nurse to suspect the onset of heart failure?
1) split S1
2)pericardial friction rub
3) ejection click
4)  gallop rhythm

2. A common problem your history may uncover is the use of medications.
1) multiple
2) illegal
3) analgesic
4) Outdated E. OTC

3.  A nurse asks a nursing assistant to help admit an elderly client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which activity is appropriate for the nurse to ask the assistant to perform?
1) Assess lung sounds.
2) Insert a small-bore feeding tube.
3) Obtain an arterial blood gas sample.
4) Obtain the client’s height and weight.


1. Where should the "heel" of the hands be placed during proper sternal CPR compression?

a. 1.5 inches superior to xiphoid tip
b. 3.0 inches superior to xiphoid tip
c. 1.5 inches inferior to xiphoid tip
d. 3.0 inches inferior to xiphoid tip

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that the client is at risk for which acid-base disorder?

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis

3. What is the most common cause of diarrhea in a child under the age of 7?

a. Bacillus cereus
b. Rotavirus
c. Salmonella
d. Clostridium difficile


The following questions published by www.nursingwork.in , which is useful for upcoming KEA staff Nurse recruitment written examination
1. Which part of the brain concerned with integration of effective, emotional, aspects of behavior, memories, and basic drives.
A. Parasympathetic system.
B. Limbic system.
C. Sympathetic system
D. Brain stem.

2. The nurse should suspect hypocalcemia when the client exhibits which signs?
a) tingling of the fingers, muscle spasms, and tetany
b) night blindness, tachycardia, and weakness
c) pale mucous membranes, shortness of breath, and lethargy
d) bleeding tendencies, thirst, and hypotension

3. Exceeding which of the following serum cholesterol levels significantly increases the risk of coronary artery disease?
a. l200 mg/dl
b. 150 mg/dl
c. 175 mg/dl
d. 100 mg/d


1. A 27 year-old sexually active female presents to her family practitioner complaining of abdominal distension, nausea, and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 15 weeks ago, which she attributes to her recent increase in exercise. Nevertheless, her physician requests a urine sample to measure levels of a glycoprotein secreted by which of the following structures?
1. Amnioblast
2. Cytotrophoblast
3. Mesonephros
4. Syncytiotrophoblast
5. Wharton's jelly

Answer: 4. Syncytiotrophoblast

2. The nurse interprets a patient's fear of being in situations or places that may be difficult or embarrassing to leave as evidence of
1. Social phobia
2. Generalized anxiety disorder
3. Agoraphobia
4. Panic disorder

Answer: 1. Social phobia

3. The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte levels of a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is common cause of digoxin toxicity?
1. Hypocalcemia.
2. Hyponatremia.
3. Hypomagnesemia.
4. Hypokalemia.