1. Number of subordinates an administrator can control or supervise is known as :
(1) unity of command
(2) span of control
(3) delegation
(4) hierarchy

2. All of the following points should be kept in mind while doing any sterile procedure
except :
1) face the sterile field
2) keep sterile equipment below the waist level
3) never cross sterile area
4) do not speak over sterile field

3.Passive range of motion is performed by
A. The person
B. A health team member
C. The person with little help
D. The person with the use of a trapeze

4. Nurse must observe one of the following side effects in a patient who is on antipsychotics
1) Arrhythmia
2) Hypertension
3) Extra Pyramidal symptom
4) Anorexia

5.Objective data is:
a. Information that is collected through the care giver's senses about the patient
b. Information that is reported by the patient
c. A verbal account of patient care and observation
d. The exchange of information

6. While nursing the patient with skeletal traction all the following should be kept in mind
except :
1) remove the weight while changing the position
2) maintain the accuracy of weight
3) ensure that weight does not touch the floor
4) remove the weight if required without causing jerk

7.A person with dementia is being admitted to a nursing center, which statement is correct.
a. Family members are asked to leave to help the person adjust
b. The admission process is completed as quickly as possible
c. The person's confusion may increase in new surroundings
d. All of the above


1. When ANS of one unit communicates decision regarding training of nursing personnel with ANS of another unit it is an example of :
(1) horizontal communication
(2) diagonal communication
(3) vertical communication
(4) upward communication

2. A neonate weighing less than 2500 gms at birth irrespective of the gestational age is referred as :
(1) term baby
(2) low birth weight baby
(3) very low birth weight baby
(4) pre term baby

3. Non verbal communication includes
1. Body language
2. Talking
3. Shouting
4. All of the above

4. If you patient is in traction you should not
1. Change the position of the weights
2. Monitor the patient's vital signs
3. Give a total bed bath
4. Report weights that are on the floor

5. Number of subordinates an administrator can control or supervise is known as :
(1) unity of command
(2) hierarchy
(3) delegation
(4) span of control

6. Mr. Burns just smoked a cigarette. You should wait to take his oral temperature
1. You don’t need to wait
2. 15-20 minutes
3. 10 minutes
4. 5 minutes

7. Mr. Green’s water pitcher holds 1000 cc’s and is full when you came on shift. You refill it once during your shift. At the end of the shift it is half full. How much water has Mr. Green had to drink?
1. 2000 cc’s
2. 1000 cc’s
3. 1500 cc’s
4. 500 cc’s


1. When an individual expresses his failures and difficulties by blaming others is known as :
(1) sublimation
(2) projection
(3) repression
(4) denial

2. The normal value of pH of blood is :
(1) 7.4
(3) 7.5
(4) 7.3

3. When thoughts are too quick without association it is called :
(1) flight of ideas
(2) mannerisms
(3) catalespy
(4) clang association

4. Normal bleeding time is :
(1) 1 - 5 minutes
(2) 1 - 4 minutes
(3) 1 - 3 minutes
(4) 1 - 2 minutes

5. Patient with mania are having all of the following symptoms except :
1) elated and unstable mood
2) increased motor activity
3) increased pressure of speech
4) sluggish and fatigue

6. All the following are types of bones except :
(1) long bones
(2) short bones
(3) flat bones
(4) regular bones

7. Primary symptoms of schizophrenia are all except :
(1) Autistic thinking
(2) Appropriate response
(3) Auditory hallucination
(4) Ambivalence

8. Normal urine output for an adult during 24 hours is :
(1) 1200 ml
(2) 1400 ml
(3) 1300 ml
(4) 1500 ml


1. A 35 year old 40 kg male patient was diagnosed to be a case of pulmonary tuberculosis.
 The appropriate conventional regimen of antitubercular drugs would be:
(a) Rifampicin 450 mg + Isoniazid 300 mg + Pyrazinamide 1500 mg
(b) Rifampicin 450 mg + Isoniazid 200 mg + Pyrazinamide 1500 mg 
(c) Rifampicin 450 mg + Isoniazid 200 mg + Pyrazinamide 1000 mg
(d) Rifampicin 600 mg + Isoniazid 300 mg + Pyrazinamide 1000 mg

2. The Chief of laparoscopic surgery asked his assistant to give him a laparoscopic port which has absolutely no chance of “capacitance coupling” during laparoscopic surgery. Which port should the assistant give to the Chief?
(a) Metal laparoscopic port
(b) Metal port with plastic cuff
(c) Partial plastic port
(d) Complete plastic port

3. Which of the auscultatory signs is absent in mitral stenosis in the presence of atrial fibrillation?
(a) Variable first heart sound
(b) Pre -systolic accentuation
(c) Mid diastolic murmur
(d) P2 accentuation

4. Southampton wound grading system and ASEPSIS wound score is used for
(a) Severity of wound infections
(b) Surgical site cosmesis
(c) Surgical scar
(d) Severity of granulation tissue


1.Which of the following about foot care is incorrect
A. Feet are easily infected and injured
B. Nursing Assistants use scissors to cut toenails
C. Dirty feet and dirty socks can harbor microbes
D. Cleaning toenails is easier afer soaking

2. A patient is sobbing. What is the best thing for the nursing assistant to say?
a. “Stop crying.”
b. “Don’t be a baby.”
c. “Cheer up.”
d. “You appear sad.”

3. A patient has had hip surgery. Her legs should be:
a. abducted
b. adducted
c. in the most comfortable position for the patient
d. elevated

4. A patient rings for the bedpan while visitors are in the room. The nurses’ assistant should:
a. wait until the visitors leave
b. give the bedpan to the patient in front of family
c. ask the visitors to leave the room during the procedure
d. ask the supervisor what to do

5. A patient complains of pain. A nurses’ aide who has completed the basic certified nurses’ aide course should:
a. get the patient some pain medication.
b. Tell the patient to tell the med nurse when he or she comes in.
c. tell the med nurse.
d.  call the doctor.

6. Which of the following should be reported immediately?
a. A blood pressure of 90/40
b. A pulse of 90
c. Respirations of 15
d. Temperature of 99.4


1. Universal precautions are used for
a-all people
b-persons who have AIDS
c-persons with colds
d-persons with Hepatitis B

2. Before performing any procedure a nurses’ aide must:
a. identify the patient
b. wash your hands
c. explain the procedure
d. all the above.

3.When performing patient care you must wash your hands
a-before patient care
b-after patient care
c-before and after patient care
d-when you think your hands are dirty

4. The circulatory system consists of the:
a. heart, arteries, veins and capillaries.
b. blood vessels, arteries, veins and capillaries
c. heart, aorta, pulmonary vessels, lungs
d. blood vessels, lymph nodes, spleen

5. A patient has a diagnosis of psoriasis. Her nurses’ aide should:
a. avoid contact with the highly contagious lesions.
b. wear gloves for patient care.
c. treat her the same as any other patient with a non-infectious disease.
d. wear a mask when entering the room.

6. It is important that dressings remain:
a. tight to keep out bacteria.
b. loose to admit air.
c. clean and dry.
d. untouched until ordered removed.

7. Which of the following will not put undue strain onto the back?
a. crossing one’s legs.
b. lifting with the knees.
c. slouching.
d. twisting the back while moving patients.

8. Which of the following is associated with smoking?
a. Pneumonia.
b. heart attacks.
c. vitamin C deficiency.
d. all of the above.


published by http://nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com/

1. A patient who has been depressed and complaining of feeling hopeless suddenly appears happier one morning and says that everything is okay now. A good nurses’ aide:
a. congratulates the patient on getting better.
b. watches more closely.
c. voices concern to the rest of the staff.
d. b. and c.

2. Which does not prevent or reduce odors
A. Placing fresh flowers in the room
B. Emptying bedpans promptly
C. Using room deodorizers
D. Practicing good personal hygiene

3. Which of the following is not true of blindness?
a. Most legally blind or visually-impaired people have no sight at all.
b. Diabetes is an important cause of blindness.
c. Always identify yourself before touching a blind person.
d. Ask if a blind person needs help before giving assistance.

4. Drainage bags from urinary catheters should always:
a. be kept below the level of the bladder.
b. have clear urine, without sediment.
c. have their output measured.
d. a and b.

5.The type of bed used for a person arriving on a stretcher is
A. Closed bed
B. Surgical bed
C. Open bed
D. Occupied bed

6. Which of the following is not true of dementia?
a. People with dementia act uncooperative to be spiteful.
b. Patients can have hallucinations.
c. People with dementia are often frightened and anxious.
d. Grooming is difficult for patients with dementia.

7.Good oral hygiene
A. Prevents mouth and odor and infection
B. Is only done once a day
C. Is not important for unconscious persons
D. Allows buildup of tartar and plaque


1. Insulin, a hormone, regulates:
A. The rhythm of the heart
B. The amount of salt retained in the blood
C. The strength of the skeletal muscles
D. The amount of sugar in the blood

2. Which of the following is a right of residents in a nursing facility?
A. Smoking in their room
B. Making as much noise as they want
C. Refusing treatment ordered by the doctor
D. To take all the drugs they want

3. When assisting a blind resident to walk it is important to:
A. Hold the resident's elbow
B. Stand slightly behind them
C. Have him use a white cane
D. Allow the resident to hold your arm

4. When caring for a confused resident what should a nursing assistant do?
A. Give simple directions
B. Give the patient activities
C. Say nothing
D. Allow the patient to plan daily activities

5. You are assigned to care for a new resident. You do not know what to call her. You should introduce yourself then:
A. Call her by her first name
B. Call her "dear" or "honey" to be friendly
C. Ask her by what name she would like to be called
D. Ask a family member what name to call him/her

6. A nursing assistant is helping a resident to walk. If the resident becomes faint and begins to fall, the assistant should:
A. Hold the resident up and call for help
B. Hold the resident up and continue walking
C. Ease the resident to the floor and call for help
D. Carry the resident back to bed and then go for help

7. A nursing assistant closes the door, pulls curtains between beds, and covers the resident with a bath sheet when giving a bath. This is an example of maintaining a resident's:
A. Choice
B. Privacy
C. Confidentiality
D. Right of expression


1.You are ill and cannot come to work., which is correct
A. Call a coworker to report your illness
B. Do not call anyone. You are sick and need your rest.
C. Call your supervisor
D. Call the administrator

2.Who decides how to style a resident's hair
A. The resident
B. The nurse
C. The nursing assistant
D. The family

3.A health care agency or program for persons who are dying is
a. Case management
b. Hospice
c. Managed care
d. A preferred provider organization

4.A restraint attached to the person's body and to a stationary object is a (an)
A. chemical restraint
B. Passive physical restraint
C. Active physical restraint
D. Full bed rail

5.The most important thing a nursing assistant can do to prevent the spread of disease is:
A. Wear gloves and other PPE
B. Get vaccinated for common illnesses
C. Wash her hands
D. Use lotions to reduce the risk of broken skin

6.Paralysis on one side of the body is called
A. Hemiplegia
B. Paraplegia
C. Coma
D. Quadriplegia

7Which is incorrect when recording on a patient's chart
A. Communicate clearly and concisely
B. Use a pencil in case you make a mistake
C. Record in a logical manner
D. Record only what you observed and did yourself


1. The purpose for padding side rails on the client’s bed is to:
(A) Help the Nurse to feed the patient
(B) have a place to connect the call signal
(C) protect the client from injury
(D) keep the client warm 

Answer: (C) protect the client from injury

2. To avoid pulling the catheter when turning a male client, the catheter tube must be taped to the client’s:
(A) bed sheet
(B) upper thigh
(C) IV Stand
(D) hip

Answer: (B) upper thigh

3. What is the term for a device used to take the place of a missing body part?
(A) Pronation
(B) Abduction
(C) iInternal rotation
(D) Prosthesis

Answer: (D) Prosthesis

4. When a client has left-sided weakness, what part of a sweater is put on first?

(A) Both sleeves
(B) Left sleeve
(C) Patients choice
(D) Right sleeve

Answer: (B) Left sleeve

5. It is appropriate for a nurse aide to share the information regarding a patient’s status with:
(A) any one the nurse aide sees fit
(B) the patient’s family members
(C) the patient’s roommate
(D) the staff on the next shift

Answer: (D) the staff on the next shift

6. A nurse aide MUST wear gloves when:
(A) feeding a client
(B) doing peri-care
(C) giving a back rub
(D) Bathing the client

Answer: (B) doing peri-care

7. Exercises that move each muscle and joint are called:
(A) Rotation
(B) range of motion
(C) abduction
(D) Adduction

Answer: (B) range of motion


1. The following are known causes of dementia that can be treated effectively with timely medical or surgical intervention except :
(a) Subdural haematoma
(b) Vitamin B12 deficiency
(c) Alzheimer’s disease
(d) Thyroid hormone deficiency

2. Alzheimer’s dementia is a syndrome characterised by all of the following features except:
(a) It is usually progressive in nature.
(b) It is associated with seizures.
(c) The consciousness of the patient is not clouded.
(d) It is marked by disturbance of higher mental functions.

3. Likely causes of laryngotracheobronchitis in a two year old child are all the following except:
(a)  Coxsackie virus
(b)  Parainfluenza virus type‐1
(c)  Respiratory syncytial virus
(d)  Influenza A virus

4.The dose of zinc for treatment of diarrhoea in children (above the age of 6 months) is:
(a) 5 mg per day for 10 days
(b) 10 mg per day for 10 days
(c) 15 mg per day for 14 days
(d) 20 mg per day for 14 days

5. A four week, term male baby presents with jaundice. His total bilirubin is 18 mg% and indirect is 4 mg%.  What is the least helpful investigation?
(a) Stool colour examination
(b) Thyroid function test
(c) Ultrasound abdomen
(d) Blood group type of mother

6. Which of the following heart diseases is common in Down syndrome?
(a) Common AV canal
(b) Myocarditis
(c) Pulmonary valvular stenosis
(d) Coarctation of aorta


1. The concept that a subordinate should have only one superior to whom he or she is directly
responsible is known as:
(a) Span of control.
(b) Unity of command.
(c) Chain of command.
(d) Authority control.

2. Which one of the following appraisal methods combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents
and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance?
(a) Forced distribution
(b) Alternation ranking
(c) Behaviourally anchored rating scale
(d) Graphic rating scale

3. A ‘SMART’ mnemomic criterion is used in:
(a) Selection process.
(b) Job rotation.
(c) Performance management.
(d) Compensation management.

4. Outplacement is the process of:
(a) removal of employees from the job.
(b) transferring the employee out of the country.
(c) helping redundant employees to find new job.
(d) sending the employee on deputation to other organizations

5. The principles of natural justice have emanated from:
(a) religious doctrines.
(b) constitutional law.
(c) common law.
(d) social norms.

6. If an aggrieved employee is NOT satisfied with the proceedings of the enquiry, he may ask for:
(a) ‘ex-parte’ enquiry.
(b) ‘de-novo’ enquiry.
(c) legal enquiry.
(d) domestic enquiry

7. In case of disciplinary action, the principles of natural justice have given rise to which one of the
following procedural safeguards?
(a) Charge-sheet
(b) Punishment without enquiry
(c) Disproportionate punishment
(d) First information report


1. Which of the following is a longer acting insulin?
(a) Aspart
(b) Glulisine
(c) Lispro
(d) Glargine
(e) All the above

2. Which one of the following diseases is deficient in Glycoprotein IIbIIIa (GpIIbIIIa) platelet receptor?
(a) Von  Willebrand’s disease
(b) Glanzmann’s disease
(c) Bernard‐Souler syndrome
(d) Storage pool disease

3. Which of the following is not found in severe Beta thalassemia?
(a) Hepatospleenomegaly
(b) Growth retardation
(c) Bone deformities
(d) Haemoglobin level of 7 to 8 gm percent

4. Polycythemia may be seen with all of the following except :
(a) Heavy smokers
(b) High altitude
(c) Renal cell carcinoma
(d) Congenital heart disease with left to right shunt

5. Hypertension and hypokalaemia are observed in which one of the following conditions?
(a) Renal artery stenosis
(b) Cushing’s syndrome
(c) GBS
(d) Barter’s syndrome
(e) None of the above

6. Which one of the following  cardiac enzymes does not remain elevated for more than 48 hours after myocardial infarction?
(a) Aspartate amino transferase
(b) Troponin T
(c) Lactic dehydrogenase
(d) Creatinine kinase M B


1. As a client progresses through pregnancy, she develops constipation. What is the primary cause of this problem during pregnancy?
A. Decreased appetite
B. Inadequate fluid intake
C. Prolonged gastric emptying
D. Reduced intestinal motility

Answer: D. Reduced intestinal motility

2. The nurse Kannika Raj is caring for a client in her 34th week of pregnancy who wears an external monitor. Which statement by the client would indicate an understanding of the nurse's teaching?
A. "I'll need to lie perfectly still."
B. "You won't need to come in and check on me while I'm wearing this monitor."
C."I can lie in any comfortable position, but I should stay off my back."
D. "I know that the external monitor increases my risk of a uterine infection."

3. Which of the following functions would the nurse expect to be unrelated to the placenta?
A. Production of estrogen and progesterone
B. Detoxification of some drugs and chemicals
C. Exchange site for food, gases, and waste
D. Production of maternal antibodies 

103. The nurse Shamili Chandrashekar obtains the antepartum history of a client who's 6 weeks pregnant. Which finding should the nurse discuss with the client first?
A. Her participation in low-impact aerobics three times per week
B. Her consumption of six to eight cans of beer on weekends
C. Her consumption of four to six small meals daily
D. Her practice of taking a multivitamin supplement daily

4. A client Named Sharadha, 38 years, visits the nurse practitioner for a regular prenatal check-up. She's 32 weeks pregnant. When assessing her, the nurse Reena should stay especially alert for signs and symptoms of:
A. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH).
B. Iron deficiency anemia.
C. Cephalopelvic disproportion.
D. Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

Answer: A. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH).

5. The nurse Reeta John is providing care for a pregnant client in her second trimester. Glucose tolerance test results show a blood glucose level of 160 mg/dl. The nurse should anticipate that the client will need to:
A. Start using insulin.
B. Start taking an oral antidiabetic drug.
C. Monitor her urine for glucose.
D. Be taught about diet.

Answer: D. be taught about diet.

6. The nurse Chandravathi Nair is planning care for a 15-year-old client in the prenatal clinic. Adolescents are prone to which complication during pregnancy?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Varicosities
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Gestational diabetes


1. The treatment protocol for a client with acute lymphatic leukemia includes prednisone and cimetadine. The purpose of the cimetadine is to:

A. Decrease the secretion of pancreatic enzymes
B. Enhance the effectiveness of methotrexate
C. Increase digestion 
D. Prevent a common side effect of prednisone 

Answer: D. Prevent a common side effect of prednisone 

2. The Nurse Pramitha is teaching the client with insulin-dependent diabetes the signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following signs is associated with hypoglycemia?

A. Tremulousness 
B. decreased pulse rate
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Flushed skin

Answer: A. Tremulousness 

3. Which of the following conditions is most likely related to the development of renal calculi?

A. Gout 
B. Pancreatitis
C. Fractured femur

Answer: A. Gout 

4. The LPN is preparing to administer an injection of vitamin K to the newborn. The nurse should administer the injection in the:

A. Rectus femoris muscle
B. Vastus lateralis muscle 
C. Hand or Buttocks
D. Dorsogluteal muscle

Answer: B. Vastus lateralis muscle 

5. The nurse Seema George is caring for a client with detoxification from alcohol. Which medication is used in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal?

A. Antabuse (disulfiram)
B. Perinorm (Metaclopramide)
C. Dolophine (methodone)
D. Ativan (lorazepam) 

Answer: D. Ativan (lorazepam) 

6. The physician Dr. Salma has prescribed Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide) for a client with nephotic syndrome. The nurse Salima should:

A. Encourage the client to drink extra fluids 

B. Request a low-protein diet for the client
C. Bathe the client using only mild soap and water