STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS

Question #1:-The antidote for heparin is
 A:-Vitamin K
 B:-Warfarin (Coumadin)
 C:-Thrombin
 D:-Protamine sulphate
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #2:-The most sensitive basic screening technique for early detection of breast cancer is
 A:-Breast self examination
 B:-Thermography
 C:-Chest X-ray
 D:-Mammography
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #3:-Total number of bones in human body
 A:-204
 B:-206
 C:-209
 D:-212
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #4:-The amount of aqueous humor in the anterior chamber of the eye is
 A:-0.25 ml
 B:-0.025 ml
 C:-2.5 ml
 D:-0.5 ml
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #5:-The Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule came in to enforcement in India in
 A:-1965
 B:-1980
 C:-1998
 D:-2010
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question #6:-Which of the following stage the carcinogen is irreversible?
 A:-Progression stage
 B:-Initiation stage
 C:-Regression stage
 D:-Promotion stage
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #7:-The Pulse Polio Immunization Programme was started on
 A:-9th) December 1994
 B:-9th) December 1995
 C:-9th) December 1996
 D:-9th) December 1997
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #8:-Biochemical findings of low serum iron, low total iron binding capacity and serum ferritin above 100 ng/ml
suggest a diagnosis of
 A:-Anemia of chronic disease
 B:-Hemochromatosis
 C:-Iron deficiency
 D:-Sideroblastic anemia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #9:-Four H's of scurvy are haemorrhagic signs, hypochondriasis, haematologic abnormalities and
 A:-Hyperpigmentation
 B:-Hyperkeratosis of hair follicles
 C:-Hypogonadism
 D:-Hypotension
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #10:-What is the likely cause of blood urea nitrogen concentration elevated in acute renal failure?
 A:-Fluid retention
 B:-Hemolysis of red blood cells
 C:-Below normal metabolic rate
 D:-Reduced renal blood flow
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

AIIMS STAFF NURSE EXAM MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION ANSWERS

Question #1:-Largest gland in the body
 A:-Thyroid
 B:-Liver
 C:-Pancreas
 D:-Parotid gland
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #2:-The drug used to reduce fever
 A:-Antipyretic
 B:-Antispasmodic
 C:-Analgesic
 D:-Antiplatelet
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #3:-Assessment of gestational age at birth is done using
 A:-New Ballard score
 B:-APGAR score
 C:-Bhakoo score
 D:-Downe score
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #4:-Which is the preferred Glucocorticoid used in the treatment of raised intracranial tension ?
 A:-Hydrocortisone
 B:-Dexamethasone
 C:-Prednisolone

DHA/ MOH EXAM QUESTIONS

1. Mr. Jockim underwent coronary bypass surgery. Four hours following admission to the critical care
unit, his BP begins to fall, his HR rises to 130 and his urine output decreases to 35 ml/hr. His CVP
increases to 22 and his PWP 18. The critical care nurse notifies the cardiovascular surgeon. Pending
the surgeons arrival, which intervention is the priority?
a. Milrinone
b. Dobutamine
c. Lasix
d. Fluid

2. Mr. Swetty is admitted with hypoxemic and hypercarbic respiratory arrest requiring intubation and ventilation. He has a RLL consolidation on xray, with copious purulent secretions. WBC is 24,000 T 39.2. BP 88/55 HR 136 and CVP 18 after 6 L of 0.9% normal saline. Urine output is 10 ml/hr. Which one of the following interventions is a priority?
a. Levophed
b. Dopamine
c. Dobutamine
d. Labetolol

3. When using a Passy-Muir Valve (PMV), which one of the following interventions is appropriate?
a. Ensure the cuff is always inflated
b. Monitor for adequacy of exhalation
c. Introduce the PMV as soon as the tracheostomy is performed
d. Suction prn by passing the catheter through the centre of the PMV

4. Mrs. Prasad has advanced cancer. She has been extubated for two days, with orders for no
reintubation. She develops increasing dyspnea. Which one of the following agents would best
manage these symptoms?
a. Propofol (Diprovan)
b. Fentanyl
c. Midazolam (Versed)
d. Gabapentin

5. Mrs. Savitha Lobo is admitted with cardiogenic shock following a myocardial infarction. She has the
following findings:
HR 68 BP 80/55 CVP 24 SpO2 88%
Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Levophed
b. Epinephrine
c. Lasix
d. Metoprolol

6. Mr. Param Singh has been on home ventilation for several years with severe COPD. He was admitted for exacerbation of COPD due to pneumonia. At home, he varies his support between Pressure Control ventilation and spontaneous breathing. His pneumonia has now resolved and the plan is to return him to his baseline ventilation. He calls you to his bedside and asks you what his ventilator is set to because he feels short of breath. You tell him he is on Pressure Support, and he becomes very angry. He tells you that he told the respiratory therapist that he has tried Pressure Support in the past and he does not like it. When you speak to the respiratory therapist, she had placed the patient on PS to see if he noticed the difference. Which one of the following is an appropriate response?
a. Encourage Mr. Param Singh to stay on the Pressure Support and give it a chance to work
b. Have the respiratory therapists speak to Mr. Ferriere to explain her interventions
c. Facilitate a meeting between you, the respiratory therapist and Mr. Ferriere to develop a plan for weaning
d. Tell Mr. Param Singhthat his lungs have changed and the previous mode might not work the same way

7. Identify the formula for minute volume.
a. Tidal volume X respiratory rate
b. Functional residual capacity – tidal volume
c. Forced vital capacity X respiratory rate
d. Cardiac Output X respiratory rate

8. Following an inferior wall infarction, Mrs. Kunal develops a sinus rhythm with Wenkebach
phenomena. She develops episodes of symptomatic bradycardia. Which one of the following
interventions would be the priority?
a. Epinephrine
b. Cardioversion
c. Atropine
d. Dopamine
9. Ms. Arungiri is recovery from a prolonged critical illness. She is having tracheostomy-mask trials each day. She is withdrawn and sad, and tells the nurse she no longer has any control of her life. Which one of the following interventions would best meet her needs?
a. Initiate antidepressant therapy
b. Administer sedation at bedtime
c. Develop a collaborative plan of care
d. Refer Mrs. Tam to a psychiatrist

10. After successful completion of a spontaneous breathing trial, extubation is considered. Which one of
the following findings would be a contraindication to extubation?
a. FiO2 0.4
b. PEEP 5
c. GCS 4
d. Minute volume 10 L/min

UPPSC STAFF NURSE EXAM MODEL QUESTION ANSWERS

Question# 1:-Name the area where optic nerve leaves the eyeball
 A:-Hyaloid fossa
 B:-Macula
 C:-Blind spot
 D:-Fovea
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question#  2:-Give an example for insitu biodiversity conservation?
 A:-Zoological parks
 B:-Botanical gardens
 C:-National parks
 D:-Museums
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question# 3:-Pel-Ebstein type of fever is seen in
 A:-Tuberculosis
 B:-Typhoid
 C:-Hodgkin's disease
 D:-Leukaemia
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question# 4:-In which part of the fallopian tube fertilisation occurs ?
 A:-Isthmus
 B:-Ampulla
 C:-Infundibulum
 D:-Interstitial portion
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question# 5:-The measurement of obstetrical conjugate
 A:-8.5cm
 B:-9.5cm
 C:-10.5cm
 D:-11.5cm
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question# 6:-A disabled friendly toilet should have
 A:-Wide entrance for wheelchair to pass
 B:-Grab bars inside for support
 C:-Ramp (not steps) at the entrance
 D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question# 7:-The amount of amniotic fluid at term
 A:-1500 ml
 B:-1200 ml
 C:-1000 ml
 D:-800 ml
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question# 8:-The acceptable range of normal adult body mass index
 A:-15.3-21.6 kg/m2
 B:-18.5-24.9 kg/m2
 C:-23.2-28.5 kg/m2
 D:-25.0-30.5kg/m2
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question# 9:-Typical finding in anaphylactic shock
 A:-Anuria
 B:-Tachycardia
 C:-Wheeze
 D:-Hypertension
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question# 10:-Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin
 A:-Vitamin A
 B:-Vitamin B
 C:-Vitamin D
 D:-Vitamin K
Correct Answer:- Option-B

STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER

Question # 1:-The following arteries are branches of internal carotid artery except
 A:-Anterior cerebral
 B:-Anterior choroidal
 C:-Posterior choroidal
 D:-Posterior communicating
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question# 2:-Ascorbic acid is the chemical name of
 A:-Vitamin A
 B:-Vitamin B
 C:-Vitamin C
 D:-Vitamin D
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question# 3:-Declaration of HELSINKI deals with

 A:-Human organ transplantation
 B:-Rights of medical practitioners
 C:-Codes of medical ethics
 D:-Human experimentation
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question# 4:-Which is more elastic?

 A:-Glass
 B:-Concrete
 C:-Steel
 D:-Rubber
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question# 5:-Active form of Vitamin D

 A:-Vitamin `D_(3)`
 B:-Calcitriol
 C:-7 - Dehydrocholesterol
 D:-Vitamin `D_(2)`
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question# 6:-A 2 year old child with moderate to severe pain due to bone metastasis from neuroblastoma should be treated

with
 A:-Codeine + Paracetamol + Bisacodyl
 B:-Morphine + Paracetamol + Bisacodyl
 C:-Ibuprofen + Paracetamol + Lansoprazole
 D:-Tramadol + Paracetamol + Lansoprazole
 Correct Answer:- Option-B


Question # 7:-Minimum percentage of disability needed to claim the benefits of a physically handicapped is
 A:-50%
 B:-40%
 C:-25%
 D:-10%
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question# 8:-The type of personality where the person has alternating periods of elation and depression
 A:-Hypomaniac
 B:-Melancholic
 C:-Melancholic
 D:- Cyclothymic
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question# 9:-Bronchial breath sound heard in all except
 A:-Bronchiectasis
 B:-Just above the upper level of pleural effusion
 C:-Over the trachea
 D:-Pneumonia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 10:-The shape of ammonia molecule is
 A:-tetrahedral
 B:-linear
 C:-pyramidal
 D:-planar
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

STAFF NURSE EXAM MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Ms. Pushparaj suddenly develops a decrease in her level of consciousness, even though she has not received any additional sedatives or analgesics. She is on broad spectrum antibiotics, levophed, vasopressin, steroids and intensive insulin. She is being fed via a nasal gastric feeding tube. She develops gastric distention with residual volumes equal to 6 hours feeding volume. Which one of the following interventions is a priority?
a. Change feeding tube to small bowel placement
b. Obtain a blood glucose measurement
c. Initiate a prokinetic agent
d. Change feeds to elemental solution

2. Mr. Padmanavha is admitted with decreased level of consciousness. His admission labs are: Blood glucose 56 mmol/L, Na 149 K 4.8 Cl 105 HCO3 22, ABGs PaO2 72 PCO2 45 pH 7.39 HCO3 23. Which one of the problems is indicated by these findings?
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis
b. Glucagon overdose
c. Non-ketotic hyperosmolar coma
d. Adrenal crisis

3. Mr. Lijosh Kuriyakose is admitted with alcoholic pancreatitis. He has a T 38.2 WBC 14,000 (with left shift and increased neutrophils). Following 4 litres of normal saline, his BP increases to 117/80 from 70/50, HR decreases from 144 to 92 and urine output increases from 10 to 60 ml/hr. He requires intubation for worsening hypoxemia. Which one of the following best explains these findings?
a. Sepsis
b. Severe sepsis
c. Septic shock
d. Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

4. Mr. Nikhil George is admitted following a motor vehicle collision. Her past medical history includes daily prednisone for the treatment of systemic lupus. Despite fluid replacement therapy and initiation of levophed, her blood pressure remains low. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Cosyntropinin
b. Epinephrine
c. Hydrocortisone
d. Vasopressin

5. Which one of the following pharmacological agents should be administered with levothyroxine for the
treatment of myxedema coma?
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Epinephrine
d. Steroids

6. Which one of the following factors increases the risk for central line infection?
a. Subclavian venous access
b. Chorhexidine skin prep
c. Tunneled catheters
d. TPN

7. Ms. Sandriya, 80 kg, drops her platelet count by >50% 10 days after starting subcutaneous heparin.
She develops a swollen right calf and positive Homan’s sign. Which one of the following interventions would you anticipate?
a. Change anticoagulant to dalteparin 15,000 units SC daily
b. Administer protamine sulphate and discontinue heparin
c. Initiate anticoagulation with fondaparinux
d. Stop all anticoagulation and initiate pneumatic compression stockings

8. Mrs. Kamala has been on steroids for the past 6 years to treat severe rheumatoid arthritis. Which one of the following problems would you anticipate?
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Hypoglycemia

9. Ms. Yakshitha is admitted with coma. She has a BP of 158/75 HR 52 (sinus) and requires intubation for level of consciousness and pulmonary edema. Her temperature is 34 (oral). Which of the following lab tests is the priority?
a. TSH, T3, T4
b. Serum and urine osmolalities
c. Cosyntropinin stimulation test
d. Serum renin and angiotensin levels

10. Mr. Jayaraj is admitted with hypoxemic and hypercarbic respiratory arrest requiring intubation and ventilation. He has a RLL consolidation on xray, with copious purulent secretions. WBC is 24,000 T 39.2. BP 88/55 HR 136 and CVP 18 after 6 L of 0.9% normal saline. Urine output is 10 ml/hr. Which one of the following interventions is a priority?
a. Levophed
b. Dopamine
c. Dobutamine
d. Labetolol

PROMETRIC EXAM QUESTIONS FOR NURSES

1. Mrs. Hajeeja Sail is on Continuous Renal Replacement and is receiving hemodiafiltration. Which one of the following interventions would increase clearance?
a. Increased fluid removal
b. Use of citrate anticoagulation
c. Use of a larger filter
d. Reduction in the blood flow rate

2. Mrs. Fathima develops a leak of gastric contents around her new gastrostomy tube site. She is placed NPO and started on a medication to decrease gastroenteropancreatic secretions. Which medication has been ordered to produce this effect?
a. Pantoprozole (Pantoloc)
b. Octreotide (Sandostatin)
c. Metoclopramide (Maxeran)
d. Vasopressin

3. Ms. Febina  is in a positive fluid balance with urine output < 30 ml/hr and significant peripheral edmea.
Labs are as follows:
Na 148 K 4.9 Cl 105 HCO3 23 Urea 16 mmol/L Creatinine 85 umol/L. Urine sodium is low, and
serum and urine osmolality increased. Which one of the following interventions would you anticipate?
a. Furosemide (Lasix)
b. 0.45% normal saline
c. 0.9 % normal saline
d. Fluid restriction

4. Mr. Abdul Aziz is admitted with a diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis. His ammonia level dropped to normal in the first 24 hours and he has had 2 spontaneous bowel movements. He remains in coma. Which one of the following interventions is a priority?
a. Lactulose
b. N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
c. Sodium Polystyrene (Kayexalate)
d. Glutamine supplements

5. the following problems is suggested by these findings?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Sick euthyroid of critical illness
d. Pituitary dysfunction

6. Mr. Abubakkar, 75 yrs old, has a history of Type II diabetes and chronic renal insufficiency. He is scheduled for a CT abdomen with contrast. Which one of the following interventions should be anticipated?
a. Furosemide (Lasix)
b. N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
c. Mannitol
d. Low dose dopamine

7. Following a severe traumatic brain injury, Jamie’s urine output increases to 300 ml/hr, BP decreases
to 90/60 and HR increases to 144. His serum sodium is 155 mmol/L. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Obtain urine and serum osmolalities
b. Change IV fluid to 0.45 % NaCl
c. Administer desmopressin (DDAVP)
d. Initiate levophed infusion

8. Mr. Yathif is admitted with cardiogenic shock and oliguric acute kidney injury. Hemodynamics reveal
the following: BP 105/60 (~70) Sinus rhythm (108) CI 1.8 (CO 2.4) CVP 23 PWP 25 SVRI 2088 (SVR
1566). Which one of the following interventions would you anticipate?
a. Dopamine at 2 mcg/kg/min
b. Captopril 6.5 mg q6h
c. Metoprolol 25 mg BID
d. Dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min

9. Mr. Ismail is admitted with bleeding from esophageal varicies. He is intubated and ventilated for airway protection and to maintain sedation, and has a Minnesota Tube inserted to tamponade his varicies. Which of the following should be included in the care of a patient with a Minnesota tube?
a. The esophageal balloon must be inflated if the gastric balloon is deflated
b. The esophageal balloon should be inflated at all times
c. Traction is maintained through the use of weights on an overbed pully
d. Airway obstruction can occur if the gastric balloon is inflated

10. Mr. Mohammed Ul Sha undergoes an open repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. In the first 24 hours following surgery, his creatinine doubles and his urine output decreases to < 10 ml/hr. Which one of the
following is the most likely cause of his acute kidney injury
a. Postrenal
b. Intrarenal
c. Prerenal
d. Aneurysmal
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MOH EXAM QUESTIONS

1. Mr. Albu Ainstin is a 66 year old man who had an intraventricular hemorrhage. He has an external
ventricular drain (EVD) that is open to drainage at 5 cmH20 above the reference level. It has been
draining ~20 ml per hour for the past 24 hours. The waveform suddenly becomes dampened with a
pressure reading of 8 mmHg, and there has been no CSF drainage during the past hour. How should
these findings be interpreted?
a. Lack of drainage is an expected finding
b. Clotting of the catheter should be suspected
c. The hydrocephalus has resolved
d. The drainage chamber should be raised

2. Mr. Mohammed Iqbal had an ischemic bowel requiring urgent total colectomy and ileostomy and TPN. One week
following admission to ICU, his Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) and his Aspartate Aminotransferase
(AST) double, and his alkaline phosphatase and direct bilirubin increase 4 fold. His lipase and
pancreatic amylase are mildly elevated and his ammonia is normal. These findings are most
consistent with which complication?
a. Hepatic ischemia
b. Biliary track disease
c. Pancreatitis
d. Hemolysis

3. Mrs. Jibi Chakocha develops a sudden facial droop with dysphagia. Which diagnostic test is best for
identification of an acute cerebral infarction?
a. MRI
b. EEG
c. CT scan
d. Cerebral angiogram

4. Mrs. Simran Mathew is started on neuromuscular blocking agents. Which one of the following interventions is
a priority?
a. Titrate sedation using a sedation scoring tool
b. Maintain eyes in a closed position
c. Use of oral hydration solutions
d. Administration of prn analgesia

5. Following insertion of a nasogastric feeding tube, Mrs. Sindrella is started on continuous enteral
feeding infusion at 30 ml/hr. Three hours later, she has a residual volume of 100 ml. Which one of the
following interventions would be the priority?
a. Remove the feeding tube and replace with a nasal-jejunal tube
b. Position Mrs. Sindrella on her left side
c. Initiate metoclopramide (Maxeran)
d. Administer a dose of pantoprazole (Pantoloc)

6. Mr. Stalin is admitted with acute gallstone pancreatitis following ERCP. He develops ARDS and
requires intubation and mechanical ventilation, with fluid resuscitation for systemic inflammation. He
is experiencing nausea and vomiting. Which one of the following interventions would you anticipate?
a. Early initiation of TPN
b. NPO with gastric drainage
c. Nasal-jejunal enteral feeding
d. Avoidance of narcotics


7. Fernandis is a 18 year old who suffers from anorexia and bulimia. She is admitted with failure to thrive,
weighing 39 kg. Which one of the following interventions is a priority?
a. Initiate central TPN while encouraging oral intake
b. Initiate tube feeding at a rate that matches daily energy requirements
c. Monitor and replace phosphate, magnesium and potassium
d. Administer loperamide prn if diarrhea develops

8. Which one of the following interventions should be included in the care of a patient receiving Central
TPN?
a. Change lipid tubing every 72 hours
b. Change central line every 7 days
c. Weekly blood cultures
d. Routine liver function tests

9. Mrs. Flossy Rodrigus is admitted with a diagnosis of septic shock NYD. She received aggressive fluid
resuscitation, is started on broad spectrum antibiotics and steroids, and is now on levophed at 15
mcg/min and vasopressin at 2.4 units/hr. Despite maintaining a MAP of 65 mmHg, her lactate rises
from 4.5 to 8.8 and she develops new onset diarrhea. Which one of the following interventions would
you anticipate?
a. Repeat blood cultures
b. Hepatic ultrasound
c. CT abdomen
d. Insertion of rectal tube

10. Mr. Binu Abraham is admitted following an overdose of beta blockers. Which one of the following antidotes
would you anticipate?
a. Levothyroxine
b. Glucagon
c. Levophed
d. N-aceylcysteine Mucomyst

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STAFF NURSE EXAM OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Jomon is an 18 year old man admitted with pneumonia and exacerbation of his asthma. He complains of chest tightness and develops increased wheezes. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
b. Bethamethasone (QVAR)
c. Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair)
d. Salbutamol (Ventolin)
2. During surgery, Mrs. Flossy develops malignant hyperthermia. Which one of the following is the
priority?
a. Aggressive cooling
b. Potassium boluses
c. Sodium citrate
d. Dantrolene

3. Mrs. Tejavani is recovering from septic shock. After failing several spontaneous breathing trials, she
received a percutaneous tracheostomy tube. Two days later, within 10 minutes of starting a
tracheostomy mask trial, she complains of shortness of breath and demands to return to the
ventilator. Her SpO2 remains > 95% during the trial. Which one of the following interventions pre
trachestomy mask trial is most likely to reduce her dyspnea and facilitate spontaneous breathing?
a. N-acetylsysteine (Mucomyst)
b. Lorazepam (Ativan)
c. Morphine
d. Aminophylline

4. Joshna is a 22 year old woman admitted with ARDS following H1N1. Her blood gases on .8 PEEP 10
PC 34 (tidal volumes ~500 cc) and AC 28 are as follows:
PaO2 52 PaCO2 46 pH 7.32 HCO3 17
Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. increase PEEP
b. increase FiO2
c. decrease PC
d. increase AC

5. Three days after insertion of a chest tube for pleural effusion/empyema, Mr. Bob Rol’s ventilator begins
to alarm for low exhaled tidal volume. Upon examination, increased bubbling is noted in the
underwater seal chamber of the chest drainage unit, and the set tidal volume is 200 cc > exhaled tidal
volume. Which one of the following problems do these findings suggest?
a. Chest tube obstruction
b. Bronchopleural fistula
c. Asynchrony with ventilator
d. Air trapping

6. Ms. Sanjana sustained a complete spinal cord injury at the level of C3 and underwent anterior
fixation 3 days ago. Which one of the following interventions should be included in her care plan?
a. Assisted cough during suctioning
b. Atropine pre suctioning
c. Mannitol x 24 hours post operatively
d. Early extubation

7. Which one of the goals for wound care should be included for a Stage II pressure ulcer?
a. Wet to dry dressings
b. Hydrocolloid dressings
c. Cleansing with chorhexidine
d. Tight packing of wound cavity

8. Mrs. Shamili is one day postoperative repair fractured hip. She develops a sudden onset of
hypoxemic respiratory failure and is diagnosed with an acute pulmonary embolus. Which one of the
following interventions is the priority?
a. Dalteparin (Fragmin) 5,000 units subcutaneous OD
b. Drotrecogin alfa activated (Xigris)
c. Coumadin (Warfarin) 10 mg loading dose
d. Heparin IV 80 units/kg bolus

9. Mrs. Rajini develops hypercarbia and hypoxemia following extubation. She is started on BiPAP in an
effort to avoid reintubation. Which one of the following interventions should be included in her plan of
care.
a. Integumentary inspection of nose and face
b. Nasal-tracheal suctioning to facilitate secretion clearance
c. Oral intake of high calorie milk shakes.
d. Administer regular dose benzodiazepines

10. Which pair of cranial nerves is being evaluated when a corneal reflex test is performed on the L eye.
a. L CN V and VII
b. R CN V and VII
c. L CN III and VII
d. R CN III and VII

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NCLEX QUESTIONS

1. Mrs. Bhavya Amin is on Coumadin for atrial fibrillation. She is admitted with ischemic bowel and requires
urgent surgery. Her INR is 10.4 and aPTT 52. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Protamine sulphate
b. Octaplex
c. Cryoprecipitate
d. Vitamin K infusion

2.. Mr. Amal Mathew is awaiting a bed on the ward and is no longer on the bedside monitor. The nurse
enters his room to assess him, and finds him cyanotic, apneic and pulseless. ECG leads are
connected and reveal ventricular fibrillation. Which one of the following is the priority?
a. Intubation and ventilation
b. Compressions X 2 minutes at 100/minute
c. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
d. Defibrillation with 3 quick shocks

3. Mrs. Anu Jose becomes agitated and is at risk for self-exubation. Which one of the following
interventions is the priority?
a. Apply restraints
b. Assess cause of agitation
c. Increase dose of sedatives
d. Have family sit with Mrs. Anu Jose


4. Mr. Binu Mon Jose experiences full thickness circumferential burns to his chest, abdomen and back. Which
one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Silver sulfadiazine
b. Wound debridement
c. Escarotomies
d. Topical analgesia

5. Mrs. Dakshayani is admitted with urosepsis. Her blood pressure increases to 110/70 following 4 L of
normal saline, however, she remains oliguric with a urine output of < 10 ml/hr. Her oxygenation
deteriorates despite BiPAP, and she requires intubation. Labs reveal: Hb 101 Platelets 62,000 INR
1.9 aPTT 57. Her lactate has increased to 6 from 4. Which one of the following interventions is
indicated?
a. Steroids
b. Vasopressin
c. Drotrecogin Alfa Activated (Xigris)
d. Dobutamine

6. Six hours following a motor vehicle collision, Mr. Anoop has a 10 fold increase in his CK and
myoglobin. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Fluid
b. Lasix
c. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
d. Insulin and glucose

7. Following open repair of a ruptured aneurysm, Mr. Ahmad Anwar bladder pressure is 45 mmHg. Which
one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Continuous bladder irrigation
b. Fluid administration
c. Decrease the amount of PEEP
d. Continuous renal replacement therapy

8. Interpret the following blood gas.
PaO2 78
PaCO2 29
pH 7.29
HCO3 14
BE - 10
a. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis

9. Six hours following a traumatic brain injury due to a fall from a ladder, Mr. Anish P Varugese develops hypotension and a 4 gram drop in hemoglobin. Which one of the following problems would be consistent with these findings?
a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Intracranial hemorrhage
c. Intra-abdominal bleeding
d. Fat embolism

10. Ms. Deepa Jose is admitted with septic shock. She presents following a 12 hour history of sore throat,
decreasing level of consciousness and purpura. Which one of the following interventions should be
instituted?
a. Airborn precautions
b. Contact precautions
c. Droplet precautions
d. No precautions while on closed circuit ventilation

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DHA EXAM QUESTIONS

1. Calculate Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) based on the following data:
HR 75
BP 120/80 (MAP 65)
CVP 12
ICP 15
RR 25
Minute Volume 10.5 L/min

a. 60
b. 50
c. 105
d. 52

2. Mr. Alberta is declared neurologically dead and his family consents to organ donation. Which one of
the following interventions is the priority?
a. Antibiotics, vasopressin and intensive insulin
b. Vasopressin, methylprednisolone (Solumedrol) and levothyroxine
c. Desmopressin (DDAVP), Epinephrine and dexamethasone (Decadron)
d. Antibiotics, Immunoglobulin and Vasopressin

3. Mr. Smith is admitted with pulmonary edema requiring intubation. His cardiac troponin and CK
increase 5 fold, 2 hours after admission and he develops ST segment depression in his lateral leads.
He has a history of diabetes, COPD and renal insufficiency. Which one of the following interventions
is the priority?
a. Tenectaplase
b. IV Heparin
c. Drotrecogin alfa activated
d. Digitalis

4. Mr. Viato had an open repair of an abdominal aneurysm involving his renal arteries. His fluid balance
from the operating room is 3 litres positive and he is on FiO2 .5 PEEP 10 and AC 14. Three hours

STAFF NURSE EXAM TOUGH QUESTIONS

1. Mr. Sing has a massive GI bleed from a gastric ulcer. Following 12 units of packed cells and 4 units of
fresh frozen plasma, he has the following labs: Hb 80 Platelets 82,000 INR 1.9 aPTT 58 and fibrinogen 0.4 g/L (normal 2-4 g/L). Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Potassium bolus
b. Octoplex
c. Cryoprecipitate
d. Protamine sulphate
2. Ms. Tirani is on FiO2 0.5 PEEP 5 and PS 15. She has a total minute volume of 12 L and her RR has
increased to 36 from 22. She is restless and agitated. Blood gases are:
PaO2 69
PCO2 49
pH 7.36
HCO3 30

Which one of the following interventions is most appropriate?
a. Increase her FiO2
b. Convert to AC
c. Increase her Pressure Support
d. Increase her sedation

3.. Calculate Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) based on the following data:
HR 75
BP 120/80 (MAP 65)
CVP 12
ICP 15
RR 25
Minute Volume 10.5 L/min

 a. 60
 b. 50
c. 105
d. 52
4. Mrs. Butovsky develops sepsis due to an infected prosthetic hip joint. She is started on antibiotic
therapy. Which lab test can be used to evaluate her response to antibiotic therapy?
a. Eosinophil Sedemenation Rate (ESR)
b. Protein C levels

ICU NURSE QUESTIONS

CASE 1
Mr. Jackle, 68 yrs old, is admitted with hypotension and respiratory distress requiring intubation following a large ST elevation anterior-lateral wall myocardial infarction.

1. Shortly after insertion of a rights subclavian catheter, he develops worsening shortness of breath and
bibasilar crackles. Blood is noted to be backing up from the central venous catheter and his oxygen
saturation decreases with supine positioning. Which one of the following problems is consistent with
these findings?
a. Pulmonary embolus
b. Right heart failure
c. Cardiac pulmonary edema
d. Hemopneumothorax

2. Mr. Jackle’s will be monitored for signs of reinfarction. Which one of the following lab tests would best
indicate reinfarction?
a. Creatinine kinase
b. Cardiac troponin
c. Lactate dehydrogenase
d. Venous oxygen saturation

3. Mr. Jackle develops cardiogenic shock, respiratory failure and acute kidney injury. He is receiving
epinephrine at 2 ug/min and is fully ventilated on an FiO2 .6 with PEEP 10. His SpO2 is 95%, HR 93
(sinus rhythm), BP 110/72 (MAP 66), CVP 14 mmHg, Hb 82 and central venous oxygen saturation
(ScvO2) 42%. Which one of the following interventions is most appropriate?
a. Metoprolol
b. Captopril
c. Increased FiO2
d. Packed cells

4. Mr. Jackle has a right chest tube inserted for a large pneumothorax. Immediately following insertion, the nurse notes that there is no fluctuation or bubbling in the underwater seal. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Increase the level of suction
b. Increase the volume in the water seal

CARDIAC NURSING QUESTION ANSWERS

1. Which of the following hormones increases the force of contraction of the heart chambers?
  • Aldosterone
  • Luteinising hormone
  • Somatostatin
  • Thyroxine
 Answer: Thyroxine

2. Which valve prevents the backwards flow of blood in to the left atrium?

  • Mitral valve
  • Aortic valve
  • Pulmonary valve
  • Tricuspid valve
Answer: Mitral valve

3.What sort of space exists between the parietal and visceral pericardium?

  • Absolute
  • Virtual 
  • Essential
  • Virtuous

Answer: Virtual

4. The ‘p’ wave on the electrocardiogram corresponds to:

  • Ventricular depolarisation
  • Atrial depolarisation
  • Atrial repolarisation
  • Ventricular repolarisation

Answer: Atrial depolarisation

5. The Frank-Starling Law states:

  • The greater the heart rate the higher the blood pressure.
  • The amount of stretch the ventricle is subject to affects the force of contraction
  • The amount of afterload affects the force of ventricular contraction
  • Cardiac output equals stroke volume times heart rate.

Answer: The greater the heart rate the higher the blood pressure.

6. Gap junctions in the intercalated discs of cardiac muscle cells allow the rapid passage of what?

  • Water
  • Oxygen
  • Calcium
  • Action potentials

Answer: Action potentials

7. The cells of the cardiac conduction system have the ability to create their own action potentials, this is known as:

  • Spontaneity
  • Reflexivity
  • Mechanicity
  • Automaticity

Answer: Automaticity

8.The effect of adrenaline on the heart includes:

  • Increased diastolic time
  • Increased heart rate
  • Increased systolic time
  • Increased relaxation period

Answer: Increased heart rate

9. What effect does increased activity in the parasympathetic nervous system have on the heart:

  • Increase force of contraction
  • Increase heart rate
  • Decrease heart rate
  • Decrease force of contraction

Answer: Decrease heart rate

10. The parasympathetic nervous system innervates the heart via which cranial nerve?

  • Cranial Nerve XII – Hypoglossal nerve
  • Cranial nerve IV – Trochlear nerve
  • Cranial nerve VI – Abducens nerve
  • Cranial nerve X – Vagus nerve

Answer: Cranial nerve X – Vagus nerve

STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS

1. Which of the following conditions is linked to more than 50% of clients with abdominal aortic aneurysms?
a. DM
b. Syphilis
c. PVD
d. HPN

Answer: d. HPN

2:-Which of the following communicable disease is eradicated in our country ?
 A:-Filariasis
 B:-Poliomyelitis
 C:-Tuberculosis
 D:-Small pox

Answer:-  D:-Small pox

3. Which of the following complications is of greatest concern when caring for a preoperative abdominal aneurysm client?
a. HPN
b. Aneurysm rupture
c. Cardiac arrythmias

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