Friday, April 11, 2025

Nursing Questions 2025

 Nursing Questions

1) Optic Nerve Carry information from............ to ............

Optic Nerve Carry information from............ to ............

2) How many Pairs of Cranial Nervers present in the Human Body?


How many Pairs of Cranial Nervers present in the Human Body?

3) Herpes is a ........... Infection


Nursing Questions 2025

4) Hepatitis is the inflammation of the..........

4) peritonitis is ..........




Answers for the above Nursing  questions

1) Optic Nerve Carry information from Eye to Brain
2) 12 Pairs of Cranial Nervers present in the Human Body?
3) Herpes is a Viral Infection

4) Hepatitis is the inflammation of the Liver

4) peritonitis is Inflammation of Peritonium

Latest Nursing Job Vacancies listed here

M.Sc Nursing jobs- Click here

Tuesday, January 14, 2025

Preparing for the Nursing Selection Test: Essential questions are here

Preparing for the Nursing Selection Test: Essential questions are here

Question No. 1. You are cleaning a client’s partial dentures, which have a metal clasp. Which of the

following actions are best on your part?

A. Place a washcloth in the sink where you are cleaning.

B. Remove the partial dentures by the metal clasp.

C. Use hot water to rinse the dentures after cleaning.

D. Soak the partial plate with the metal clasp overnight.

Answer: A

Question No. 2. In Freudian theory, the __________ is the "executive" structure that is directed by the
reality principle.
a) Id 

b) Libido 

c) Superego 

d) Ego

(Exercise: Comment your Answer)

Question No. 3 . The nurse giving discharge instructions advises the client to get out of bed slowly

and to get up in stages from lying to sitting to standing. The client understands that the

reason for doing this is:

A. to prevent falls.

B. to improve circulation.

C. as a warm-up exercise.

D. to increase oxygenation.

Answer: A

Preparing for the Nursing Selection Test Essential questions are here


Question No. 4. The first heart sound occurs in
a) Iso-volumetric contraction 

b) Rapid ejection phase

c) Isovolumetric relaxation 

d) Atrial systole

(Exercise: Comment your Answer)

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Question No. 5. A fellow nurse who is working on another unit asks to read the chart of your

assigned client. Which one of the following criteria would enable the nurse to have

access to the chart?

A. Be unrelated to the client.

B. Have a current nursing license.

C. Have client’s verbal permission.

D. Be directly involved in client’s care.

Answer: D

Question No. 6 Carbohydrate digesting enzyme present in mouth is
a) Amylase 

b) Pepsin

 c) Sucrase 

d) Elastase

(Exercise: Comment your Answer) AIIMS 2013 Exam

Question No. 7. When taking a radial pulse for half a minute, the nurse finds it to be irregular.

Which of the following would be best for the nurse to do next?

A. Take the radial pulse for one minute.

B. Check the carotid pulse to see if it is irregular.

C. Assess the apical pulse.

D. Chart the radial pulse and the irregularities.

Answer: C

(Exercise: Comment your Answer)

Question No. 8. Which Immunoglobulin crosses Placenta
a) Ig G 

b) Ig M 

c) Ig A 

d) Ig D

(Exercise: Comment your Answer) AIIMS Exam


Question No. 9. Which Immunoglobulin crosses Placenta
a) Ig G 

b) Ig M 

c) Ig A 

d) Ig D

(Exercise: Comment your Answer)


Question No. 10. Communicable disease that is transmitted through orofecal route is

a) Hepatitis C 

b) Typhoid 

c) Measles 

d) Pertussis

(Exercise: Comment your Answer)

Saturday, August 24, 2024

RRB Nursing Superintedant Exam Questions

 RRB Nursing Superintedant Exam Questions

The RRB Nursing Superintedant Exam Model Questions published here with the help of www.nursingwork.in There are 10 Model Questions published here other Questions published earlier you can find at our Nursing Question Papers Bundle

RRB NS Question No. #1. Parkinsonism includes combination of the following:
a) Tremor, bradykinesia and muscle rigidity
 
b) Paresis, anesthesia and muscle spasticity
 
c) Chorea and muscle hypotonia
 
d) Tremor, ataxia and muscle hypotonia

RRB NS Question No. #2 . When you encounter the victim of an electrical-current injury who is still holding

an electrical appliance, you would do which of the following things first?

A. Move the client to a safe place immediately.

B. Unplug the electrical cord before moving client.

C. Shut off the electrical current.

D. Check for a carotid pulse and for respirations.

Answer: C

More Question Published by one of the Youtube Nursing Tutor also given here for your reference

RRB NS Question No. #3. Which of the following vitamin is soluble in fat
a) Vitamin A 
b) Vitamin C 
c) Vitamin B 
d) None

RRB NS Question No. #4 . While giving a shift report on your assigned client, you realize that you forgot to

record a nursing procedure done on your client. Which of the following methods of

documentation would be best on your part?

A. Write the procedure between the two lines of your shift documentation closest to the occurrence.

B. Find a blank space in your earlier charting, and chart the procedure in that space.

C. Tell the oncoming nurse to chart the procedure for you and to cite the time it was done.

D. Chart the current date and time and “Late entry,” indicating when and what was done.

Answer: D

RRB NS Question No. #5. The span of human Red Blood Cell   is about days.

(a)   60 (b) 80

(c)   120 (d) 180

RRB NS Question No. #6. The first heart sound occurs in

a) Iso-volumetric contraction 

b) Rapid ejection phase

c) Isovolumetric relaxation 

d) Atrial systole

RRB NS Question No. #7 . When reading an autopsy report, the nurse encounters the term “mid-sagittal

plane.” This nurse understands that this means the body was viewed using a plane that

matched which of the following descriptions?

A. This plane cuts the body horizontally.

B. This plane divides the body into front and back portions.

C. The body is separated into left and right equal portions.

D. The body is divided using an X across the chest.

Answer: C

RRB NS Question No. #8. Receptors for colour vision are…………
a) Rodes 

b) Bipolar cells 

c) Cones 

d) Ganglion cells

RRB NS Question No. #9. What should be the minimum gap between two doses of Vitamin A under UIP?

(a) 4 months 

(b)   5 months

(c)   6 months 

(d)   7 months

RRB NS Question No. #10 . When examining the client’s abdomen, the nurse will most facilitate the

examination by positioning the client in which of the following ways?

A. supine with small pillows beneath knees and head

B. semi-Fowler’s position with knees extended

C. sitting in the chair with legs elevated

D. supine with arms extended and hands behind head

Answer: A

Railway Nursing Question Answer- Click here 

Wednesday, July 3, 2024

10 AIIMS Nurses Recruitment Questions 2024

10 AIIMS Nurses Recruitment Questions 2024

The following AIIMS Staff Nurse or Nursing Officer exam solved question paper is available for nurses preparing to take the AIIMS Nurses Recruitment Examination. The document consists of 10 questions with answers provided at the end of the post. A downloadable pdf version of this question paper is also accessible.


Question *1. Which of the following categories of needs occupy the lowest position in Maslow's

hierarchy of needs

a) Need for safety and security b) Physiological needs

c) Affiliation needs d) Self-actualization

Question *2. When the nurse problem solves and has implemented a solution from several

solutions identified, the nurse most needs to do which of the following things?

A. Discard the solutions that were not selected for implementation.

B. Implement a second solution, comparing its usefulness with the first solution.

C. Evaluate the effectiveness of the solution implemented.

D. Consider the problem solving completed in this case.

Answer: C

 AIIMS 2013 Exam

Question *3. A father scolds his son when he hits his little sister. The son stops 

hitting the sister. The change in the child's behaviour is a result of

a) Positive reinforcement 

b) Negative reinforcement

c) Learned Helplessness 

d) Punishment

10 AIIMS Nurses Recruitment Questions 2024




Question *4 . The client you are assigned to has four nursing diagnoses. 

Which of the following would you assign the highest priority?

A. chest pain related to cough secondary to pneumonia

B. self-care deficit related to activity intolerance secondary to sleep-pattern disturbance

C. risk for altered family processes secondary to hospitalization

D. self-esteem deficit situational

Answer: A


Question *5 . Which of the following activities on the part of the nurse most demonstrates

individualization of the nursing-care plan for a client?

A. Include client’s preferred times of care and methods used.

B. Write the care plan instead of taking it off the computer.

C. Use a care plan from a book but add some things to it.

D. Select nursing diagnoses that match the client’s problems

Answer: A.

Repeated AIIMS 2018 Exam

Question *6. Respiratory distress syndrome of newborn is due to
a) Deficient surfactant 
b) Lung collapse
c) Lung infection 
d) Pulmonary hypertension

Question *7. When working with clients experiencing pain, you will define their pain in regard

to whether they have pain or not and how intense it is based on which of the following

things?

A. nursing experience and expertise

B. the underlying cause of the pain

C. whatever the experiencing person says it is.

D. current medical and pharmacological research

Answer: C

Question *8. When pain impulses are transmitted via the A-delta fibers, which of the following

types of pain will your client have?

A. sharp, pricking pain

B. throbbing pain

C. burning pain

D. intermittent stabbing pain

Answer: A


Question *9 . Glomerular filtration rate is influenced by
a) Hydrostatic capillary pressure 
b) Capillary oncotic pressure
c) Bowman’s space hydrostatic pressure 
d) All of them

Question *10. What is used in acupuncture treatment?

(a) Finger Pressure 

(b)   Steam

(c)   Needles

(d)   Massage & Perfumes

Thursday, May 2, 2024

First Year Post Basic B.Sc Nursing Microbiology Question Paper

First Year Post Basic B.Sc Nursing Microbiology Question Paper

First Year Post Basic B.Sc Nursing Supplementary Examinations

February 2024

Microbiology

(2016 Scheme)

Time: 3 Hours Total Marks: 75

 Answer all questions to the point neatly and legibly • Do not leave any blank pages between

answers • Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space

 Answer all parts of a single question together • Leave sufficient space between answers

 Draw diagrams wherever necessary

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Long Essay: (12)

1. Define hospital-acquired infections. Write in detail about Hospital Infection Control

Committee and various infection control measures in health care setting. (2+2+8)

Short Essays: (2x7=14)

2. List the staining methods used in bacteriology. Give suitable examples. Write the

principle and importance of gram staining (2+2+3)

3. Name the viruses causing hepatitis. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B

virus (2+5)


Write short notes on: (5x5=25)

4. Needle stick injuries

5. Collection and transport of sample for blood culture

6. Dengue virus

7. Cryptococcosis



8. Roundworm infections

Answer briefly: (4x4=16)

9. Prophylaxis for rabies virus infection

10.Antimicrobial susceptibility testing for bacteria

11.IgG antibody

12.Widal test

Differentiate between (2x4=8)

13.Exotoxin and Endotoxin

14.Peripheral blood smear findings of P. vivax and P. falciparum

*****************

Monday, April 29, 2024

B.Sc Nursing Question Papers Kerala

KERALA UNIVERSITY B.SC NURSING QUESTION PAPERS 2024

First Semester B.Sc Nursing Degree Regular/Supplementary

Examinations April 2024

Paper II – Applied Anatomy and Applied Physiology

Time: 3 Hrs Total Marks: 75

 Answer all questions to the point neatly and legibly • Do not leave any blank pages between

answers • Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space

 Answer all parts of a single question together • Leave sufficient space between answers

 Draw diagrams wherever necessary

Section A – Applied Anatomy

Q.P. CODE: 122010 Max. Marks: 37

Multiple Choice Questions (6x1=6)

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(choose the most appropriate answer from the options given)

1. Following are the parts of brainstem except

a) Cerebellum b) Midbrain c) Medulla d) Pons

2. Hassall’s corpuscles are found in

a) Palatine tonsil b) Lymph node c) Spleen d) Thymus

3. Following nerve is a cranial nerve

a) Axillary b) Median c) Tibial d) Facial

4. Pulmonary veins open into

a) Left atrium b) Left ventricle c) Right atrium d) Right ventricle

5. Fertilization takes place in the following part of fallopian tube

a) Ampulla b) Isthmus c) Intramural d) Infundibulum

6. Following is the covering of testes

a) Tunica adventitia b) Tunica albuginea c) Tunica intima d) Tunica media

Essay (1x10=10)

7. Mention the parts of respiratory system. Describe right lung in detail (2+8)

Short notes (3x5=15)

8. Blood supply of heart

9. Ovary

10.Spinal cord

Differentiate between (3x2=6)

11.Microscopic anatomy of thick skin and Thin skin

12.Jejunum and Ileum.

13.Eversion and Inversion

(PTO)

Section B – Applied Physiology

Q.P. CODE: 123010 Max. Marks: 38

Multiple Choice Questions (7x1=7)

B.Sc Nursing Question Papers Kerala


(choose the most appropriate answer from the options given)

1. The normal serum sodium level is

a) 4 meq/L b) 109 meq/L c) 142 meq/L d) 8 mg/dL

2. Intercalated disks are present in which muscle

a) Skeletal b) Cardiac c) Smooth d) All the muscles

3. Cretinism is due to deficiency of ………….. hormone

a) Growth b) Thyroid c) Prolactin d) PTH

4. Steatorrhea refers to

a) Fatty stools b) Watery stools c) Blood in stools d) Mucus in stools

5. The first heart sound occurs in

a) Iso-volumetric contraction b) Rapid ejection phase

c) Isovolumetric relaxation d) Atrial systole

6. Respiratory distress syndrome of newborn is due to

a) Deficient surfactant b) Lung collapse

c) Lung infection d) Pulmonary hypertension

7. Glomerular filtration rate is influenced by

a) Hydrostatic capillary pressure b) Capillary oncotic pressure

c) Bowman’s space hydrostatic pressure d) All of them

Essay (1x10=10)

8. What is the normal respiratory rate. Describe the regulation of respiration. Add a note on

hypoxia. (1+6+3)

Short notes (3x5=15)

9. Erythropoiesis

10.Functions of the cranial nerves

11.Functions of liver

Give reasons for the following (3x2=6)

12.Cardiac muscle cannot be tetanized

13.Bile salts are essential for health

14.Middle ear infections can cause deafness

**********************************

Friday, February 2, 2024

Nursing Exam Questions with Answer 2024 available

Nursing Exam Questions with Answer 2024 available

The Solved Multiple Choice Questions of Nurses Recruitment Examination conducted to select suitable candidates by various Recruitment Agencies/ Government Boards is published below. It will be useful for preparing the future recruitment examination of Nursing Officer/ Staff Nurse

Question Paper Format: Pdf/ png/ Txt

Total No. of Questions: 20

 1. Which correct instruction to be followed in the discharge teaching of a patient following a spinal fusion?

a) Don’t use the stairs

b) Don’t bend at the waist

c) Don’t walk for long hours

d) Swimming should be avoided

Ans: b

2. What is the most common clinical explanation of G6PD following ingestion of aspirin?

a) Kidney failure

b) Acute hemolytic anemia

c) Hemophilia A

d) Thalassemia

Ans: B

3. A client who is in isolation requires a temperature taken many times a day. Where is the exact place for the thermometer to be kept?

a) At the nurses’ station.

b) On the isolation cart outside the client’s room.

c) In the dirty utility room.

d) In the patient’s room.

Ans: d

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4. Choose the option that best illustrates how persons affected by Parkinson’s disease typically walk?


a) Long, steady gaits

b) They drag their feet while taking small steps

c) Fast movement of the feet

d) Always needs support from assistive devices

Ans: b

5. The nurse evaluates a patient with an ileostomy for possible growth of which of the following acid-base imbalances?

a) Respiratory acidosis

b) Metabolic acidosis

c) Metabolic alkalosis

d) Respiratory alkalosis

Ans: b

Nursing Exam Questions with Answer 2024 available


6. The nurse expects which of the following responses in a 

patient who grow metabolic acidosis.

a) Heart rate of 105 bpm

b) Urinary output of 15 ml

c) Respiratory rate of 30 cpm

d) Temperature of 39 degree Celsius


Ans: c


7. A patient who is dealing with pain during the first stage of labor. What is the best way a nurse can use to instruct the patient to manage the pain?

a) Walk in the hospital room.

b) Use slow chest breathing.

c) Request pain medication on a regular basis.

d) Lightly massage her abdomen.

e) Sip ice water.

Ans: a, b, d


8. The nurse is observing a child with burns during treatment for burn shock. Which of the following evaluation provides the most correct guide to knowing the adequacy of fluid resuscitation?

a) Skin turgor

b) Level of edema at burn site

c) Adequacy of capillary filling

d) Amount of fluid tolerated in 24 hours

Ans: a


9. The nurse is training a mother whose daughter deals with iron-deficiency anemia. The nurse demonstrates the parent understood the dietary modifications if she chooses?

a) Bread and coffee

b) Fish and Pork meat

c) Cookies and milk

d) Oranges and green leafy vegetables

Ans: d


10. A nurse who is caring for a child with pyloric stenosis should look for symptoms of?

a) Vomiting large amounts

b) Watery stool

c) Projectile vomiting

d) Dark-colored stool

Ans: c


11. What symptoms is common in patients dealing with active tuberculosis?

a) Weight loss.

b) Increased appetite.

c) Dyspnea on exertion.

d) Mental status changes.

Ans: a

12. A client with a severe asthma attack has the following arterial blood gas: pH 7.33; PCO2 48; PO2 58; HCO3 26. A nurse has to perform first?

a) Albuterol (Proventil) nebulizer.

b) Chest x-ray.

c) Ipratropium (Atrovent) inhaler.

d) Sputum culture.

Ans: a

13. What will be the steps for adult CPR if a patient is found unresponsive?

a) Assess consciousness

b) Give 2 breaths

c) Perform chest compression

d) Check for serious bleeding and shock

e) Open patient’s airway

f) Check breathing


Ans: a, e, f, c, b, d

14.A client possessing a phosphorus level of 5.0mg/dL. The nurse closely assess the patient for?

a) Signs of tetany

b) Elevated blood glucose

c) Cardiac dysrhythmias

d) Hypoglycemia

Ans: a 

15. A client having multiple sclerosis (MS) is experiencing bowel incontinence and is going through a bowel retraining program. Which strategy is not correct?

a) Eating a diet high in fiber.

b) Setting a regular time for elimination.

c) Using an elevated toilet seat.

d) Limiting fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day.

Ans: d

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part I

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part III

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part IV

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part V

16. A nurse often evaluates a post-thyroidectomy patient for?

a) Polyuria

b) Hypoactive deep tendon reflex

c) Hypertension

d) Laryngospasm

Ans: d


17. An 18-month-old baby is having a rounded belly, a slightly large head and bowlegs. The nurse assumes?

a) The child appears to be a normal toddler

b) The child is developmentally delayed

c) The child is malnourished

d) The large head of the child may have neurological problems.

Ans: a


18. What should a nurse perform before taking the client’s history?

a) Offer the client a glass of water

b) Establish rapport

c) Ask the patient to undress and put on a gown

d) Ask relevant information for insurance purposes

Ans: b

19. The harmful outcome for post hemodialysis is a drop in?

a) Creatinine

b) BUN

c) Phosphorus

d) Red blood cell count

Ans: d

20. If there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the closed chest drainage system, what will occur?

a) The connection has been taped too tightly

b) The connection tubes are kinked

c) Lung expansion

d) Air leak in the system

Ans: d

AIIMS, Railway and other Staff Nurse Recruitment Objective Type Questions Part-31

 

Friday, November 17, 2023

Nursing COC Exam Questions

Nursing COC Exam Model Questions-2023

Nursing COC exam questions From Question No. 1 to 14 Published here the answer will be published at www.nursingwork.in . You can also download all 100 question answers in pdf format by clicking below download link. These question also useful If you are planning to attend the upcoming KEA Nursing officer Examination,  AIIMS ExaminationUPSC Examination, HPPSC Examination, RRB Examination, PGI Examination, ESIC Examination

Nursing COC Exam Question No.1 . What complication should the nurse be alert for in a diabetic patient who has been placed in skeletal  traction after a motor vehicle accident ? 

  A. Osteoarthritis 

  B. Osteomyelitis 

  C. Osteoporosis 

  D. Osteosarcoma 

Nursing COC Exam Question No.2. The part of the fetus which occupies the lower pole of the uterus is called?

A. Lie

B. Presentation

C. Denominator

D. Position

Nursing COC Exam Question No.3. There is blood on the floor. How should the nurse clean up the spill? 

A. Wipe up the spill and then clean the area with alcohol. 

B. Use a 1:9 solution of chlorine bleach to clean the spill. 

C. Wipe up the spill and clean the area with water. 

D. Use an iodine solution to clean up the spill.

Nursing COC Exam Question No.4 Low levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein levels are found in

A. Open neural tube defect

B. Down syndrome

C. Multiple pregnancies

D. Rh-isoimmunisation

Nursing COC Exam Question No.5 . Thin superficial compact layer of decidua’s covering the blastocyst is called as?

A. Decidua basalis

B. Decidua capsularis

C. Decidua parietalis

D. Decidua Vera


Nursing COC Exam Question No 6. the First case of Covid positive case in India reported in?

A. Kerala

B. Tamilnadu

C. Gujarat

D. Maharashtra

Nursing COC Exam Question No.7 . The epithelial tissue which is found in the uterine tubes is?

A. Squamous

B. Ciliated

C. Columnar

D. simple

Nursing COC Exam Question No.8 . Low levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein levels are found in

A. Open neural tube defect

B. Down syndrome

C. Multiple pregnancies

D. Rh-isoimmunisation

Nursing COC Exam Question No.9 . Passive movement of the head due to untwisting of the neck sustained during internal rotation is called?

A. Flexion

B. Extension

C. Restitution

D. Descent

Nursing COC Exam Question No.10 . When caring for a client in hemorrhagic shock, how should the nurse position the client? 

A. Flat in bed with legs elevated 

B. Flat in bed 

C. Trendelenburg position 

D. Semi-sitting 

Nursing COC Exam Question No.11. Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage

A. Bleeding disorders

B. Abruptio placenta

C. Placenta previa

D. Atonic uterus

Nursing COC Exam Question No.12. The type of abnormality where the umbilical cord is attached to membranes is called?

A. Battledore placenta

B. Velamentous placenta

C. Circumvallate placenta

D. Placenta marginata

Nursing COC Exam Questions


Nursing COC Exam Question No.13. The total lung capacity in

 a healthy adult male is approximate?

A. 500 mL

B. 5000 mL

C. 6000 mL

D. 6000 L

 Comment your Answer- If you know

Nursing COC Exam Question No.14. The ideal roller bandage application for body parts where the thickness varies, such as over the forearm, is?

A. Simple spiral

B. Figure of eight

C. Reverse spiral

D. Divergent Spica

Nursing COC Exam Question No.15 . The physician has ordered mannitol IV for a client with a head injury with moderate TBI (trumatic brain injury) . What should the nurse closely  monitor because the client is receiving mannitol? 

A. Deep tendon reflexes 

B. Urine output 

C. Level of orientation 

D. Pulse rate 

More Than 38,000 Nursing Exam Question Answers available at this link

Sunday, November 12, 2023

KEA Staff Nurse- Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part 5

KEA Staff Nurse- Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part 5

56. Which of the following is not a side effect

of salbutamol ?

(A) Muscle tremors

(B) Sedation

(C) Palpitation

(D) Nervousness

57. Which is the drug of choice for severe &

complicated malaria ?

(A) Quinine

(B) Artesunate

(C) Primaquine

(D) Chloroquine

KEA Staff Nurse- Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part 5


58. Antidote for heparin is

(A) Protamine sulphate

(B) Vitamin K

(C) Aminocarpoic acid

(D) Aminodarone


59. The values of Correlation Coefficient varies

between

(A) –0.5 to +0.5

(B) –0.75 to +0.75

(C) < –1.0 to < +1.0

(D) None of these

60. The constant presence of a disease or infection within a given geographical area is called -

(A) Sporadic

(B) Epidemic

(C) Endemic

(D) Pandemic

61. Koplik's spots are clinical feature of -

(A) Chicken pox

(B) Pertusis

(C) Cholera

(D) Measles

62. Which of the following is is not constuent

of vital statistics?

(A) Birth rate

(B) Morbidity & Mortality rate

(C) Educational rate

(D) Life expectancy

63. Route of administration of PPD for

Tuberculin Test is-

(A) SC

(B) ID

(C) IM

(D) IV

64. The first referral level in the health care system is -

(A) Primary Health Care

(B) Secondary Health care

(C) Tertiary Health Care

(D) Premordial Health Care 

65. Housefly is responsible for spread of -

(A) Diarrhoea

(B) Dysentary

(C) Cholera

(D) All of these

66. When did the Mental Health Bill became

Mental Health Act ?

(A) 1912

(B) 1985

(C) 1987

(D) 1990

67. A freshly prepared ORS solution should be

used within -

(A) 24 hours

(B) 48 hours

(C) 12 hours

(D) 06 hours

68. Ripeness of cervix is assessed by -

(A) Bishop score

(B) Apgar score

(C) Downe score

(D) New ballard score

69. Uterus is palpable at the level of symphysis at -

(A) 8th week

(B) 10th week

(C) 12th week

(D) 14th week

70. Normal duration for involution of Uterus is -

(A) 2 weeks

(B) 4 weeks

(C) 6 weeks

(D) 8 weeks 

Sunday, October 15, 2023

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions- Part II

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions- Part II

2nd part of model questions for preparing upcoming KEA Nursing officer examination is published here

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions- Part II (question No. 21-40) 

21. Gleno-humeral joint is also called -

(A) Hip joint

(B) Knee joint

(C) Shoulder joint

(D) Elbow joint

22. Which blood group can be administered to

a patient in emergency when his blood

group is not known?

(A) 'O' negative

(B) 'O' positive

(C) 'AB' negative

(D) 'AB' positive

23. The major constituent of the bone is -

(A) Calcium sulphate

(B) Sodium chloride

(C) Magnesium sulphate

(D) Calcium phosphate

24. The protein factory in the human body

cell is -

(A) Nucleus

(B) Cytoplasm

(C) Golgi apparatus

(D) Ribosome

5 / 3

6

25. The posterior pituitary is mainly consists

of -

(A) T cells

(B) C cells

(C) Neuronal projections

(D) Beta cells

26. Bell's palsy is a disorder of the cranial

nerve -

(A) 9th

(B) 7th

(C) 5th

(D) 3rd

27. Which part of the brain control the body

temperature ?

(A) Pons

(B) Amygdala

(C) Hypothalamus

(D) Liver

28. The 'Adam's Apple' is formed by -

(A) Epiglottis

(B) Cricoid cartilage

(C) Thyroid cartilage

(D) Hyoid bone

29. Depolarisation in a nerve action potential is

due to -

(A) Opening of Pottasium channels

(B) Opening of Sodium channels

(C) Opening of Calcium channels

(D) Closing of Sodium channels

30. The recommended flow rate of oxygen via

nasal cannula is -

(A) 1- 4 litres/minute

(B) 1- 6 litres/minute

(C) 4- 6 litres/minute

(D) 6- 8 litres/minute

31. The size of intrvenous cannula used for

neonate is -

(A) 24 gauze

(B) 22 gauze

(C) 20 gauze

(D) 18 gauze

32. Which of the following is not a physician

prescribed intervention?

(A) Drug administration

(B) Ordering diagnostic test

(C) Performing wound care

(D) Elevating an edematous limb 

33. The practice of nursing is regulated by -

(A) State nurse practice Act

(B) Innstitutional policies

(C) Fedral guidelines & regulations

(D) International standards & Codes

34. Kussmaul breathing is associated with -

(A) Atelactasis

(B) Bronchial asthma

(C) Diabetic ketoacidosis

(D) Heart Failure

35. Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration

is called -

(A) Hyperventilation

(B) Hypoventilation

(C) Orthopnoea

(D) Cheyne-strokes respiration

36. What should be the size of the endotracheal

tube for a newborn weighing 2 to 3 kgms.?

(A) 4.0

(B) 3.50

(C) 3.0

(D) 2.50

37. Clinical death is also known as -

(A) Biological death

(B) Brain death

(C) Legal death

(D) Accidental death

38. Treatment of severe dehydration is -

(A) Start DNS immediately

(B) Start colloids immediately

(C) Start Ringer's Lactate immediately

(D) Combination of 5% dextrose with

Ringer's Lactate immediately

39. Common complication after perforation of

appendix -

(A) Haemorrhage

(B) Peritonitis

(C) PID

(D) Intestinal obstruction

40. Linear burrowing of a mite at finger webs,

wrists, elbow, ankles and penis is seen in

case of -

(A) Scabies

(B) Impetigo

(C) Psoriasis

(D) Herper zoster

Answers for the above model Questions

1 D 26 B 51 B 76 D

2 C 27 C 52 B 77 C

3 D 28 C 53 A 78 A

4 A 29 B 54 D 79 A

5 C 30 A 55 A 80 B

6 D 31 A 56 B 81 A

7 C 32 D 57 B 82 B

8 C 33 A 58 A 83 C

9 C 34 C 59 C 84 B

10 B 35 D 60 C 85 B

11 B 36 B 61 D 86 B

12 A 37 B 62 C 87 C

13 D 38 C 63 B 88 C

14 C 39 B 64 B 89 A

15 A 40 A 65 D 90 A

16 B 41 A 66 C 91 A

17 A 42 D 67 A 92 B

18 C 43 C 68 A 93 D

19 B 44 B 69 C 94 C

20 B 45 A 70 C 95 C

21 C 46 B 71 A 96 C

22 A 47 C 72 D 97 A

23 D 48 C 73 B 98 B

24 D 49 D 74 B 99 B

25 C 50 A 75 A 100 D 

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part I

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part III

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part IV

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions Part V

KEA Nursing Officer Exam Model Questions- Part II


Friday, September 15, 2023

General Nursing Exam Questions 2024

General Nursing Exam Questions 2024

Some general nursing exam questions that may help you to prepare for an Nurses Recruitment Interview/ Written Exam/ CBT

  • What are the signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?
  • How would you prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
  • What are the nursing interventions for a patient with diabetes?
  • What is the Normal Range of Glucose Level in Fasting and Post Prandial?
  • How would you prioritise care for multiple patients with different needs?
  • What are the signs and symptoms of dehydration in an elderly patient?
  • How would you assess a patient's pain level?
  • How would you assess a patient's respiratory status?
  • What are the common side effects of opioid analgesics?
  • What are the potential complications of immobility in a hospitalised patient?
  • What is the normal range for blood pressure in adults?
  • What care can you give immediately for a Chocking baby?
  • How can you stop Bleeding in Rectum?
  • How can you manage head Injury Patient found on Road Transport Accident you found while walking on road.
  • Dengue Fever Caused by which Mosquito and how you can prevent it?

Consult official study materials and resources to ensure you are adequately prepared for the DHA MOH ESIC NIMHANS, PGIMER, JPIMER, KIMS Nurses Recruitment Exam 2024

General Nursing Exam Questions 2024


Friday, July 14, 2023

Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam Solved Question paper part 1

Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam Solved Question paper part 1

The Nursing professor/ Assistant Professor Recruitment takes place every year in most of the Universities. The Nursing Questions little diffrent from Normal Nurses Recruitment Exam Questions. following are the model questions with answer for preparing the Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam
Note: This may also be asked in Nursing officer/ Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam

Question 1:-Fundamental postulates of Martha E. Rogers Theory include

        A:-Conservation, adaptation, wholeness, integrity

        B:-Transpersonal caring, caring relation, caring occasion, carative factor

        C:-Energy field, openness, pattern, pan dimensionality

        D:-Stabilization, reorganization, interaction, order

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 2:-Providing comprehensive client care across the continuum of practice setting is

        A:-Case management

        B:-Team nursing

        C:-Modular nursing

        D:-Primary nursing

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 3:-Essential components of goal include

        A:-Target date, nursing action, criteria, desired behavior

        B:-Expected behavior, diagnosis, intervention, subject

        C:-Subject, behavior, nursing action, criteria

        D:-Task statement, criteria, condition, time frame

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 4:-Educating clients regarding mental health is an example of adhering to

principle of

        A:-Autonomy

        B:-Beneficence

        C:-Non maleficence

        D:-Justice

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 5:-Endorsement by a specialized organization that nurse has certain

qualification that exceed basic competence is

        A:-Licensure

        B:-Accreditation

        C:-Credentialing

        D:-Standard practice

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 6:-First priority to be done when nurse make a medication error is

        A:-Assess the patient's condition

        B:-Notify physician in-charge

        C:-Identify type of error

        D:-Chart medicine in patient's record

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 7:-Elements of an evidence based practice question include

        A:-Research design, level of evidence, method, source of funding

        B:-Database, selection, evidence ranking, analysis

        C:-Level of evidence, source of data, implication, standard practice

        D:-Population, intervention, comparison, outcome

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 8:-Largest vein of heart is

        A:-Great cardiac vein

        B:-Coronary sinus

        C:-Anterior cardiac vein

        D:-Aortic sinus

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam Solved Question paper part 1

Question 9:-Most common monosaccharide in human diet is

        A:-Fructose, glucose, galactose

        B:-Sucrose, lactose, maltose

        C:-Lysine, leucine, methionine

        D:-Tryptophan, histidine, valine

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 10:-Intra muscular injections are given in

        A:-Gluteus maximums

        B:-Gluteus medius

        C:-Gluteus superior

        D:-Gluteus inferior

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam Solved Question paper part 2 uploaded soon.

Nursing Professor Recruitment Exam Question paper with answer.pdf

Saturday, July 8, 2023

Railway Nurses Recruitment Exam sample Questions 2023

Railway Nurses Recruitment Exam sample Questions 2023

The useful question answers for upcoming Railway Staff Nurse/ Nursing officer Examination is pulblished here, there more than 10000 Raiway Question Answers available in this Blog

RRB Model Question No.1. Chickungunya fever is transmitted by the mosquito species

(a) Aedes (b) Culex

(c) Mansonia (d) Anopheles

RRB Model Question No.2. About 60-80% of all reported cases of foodborne diseases are due to

 

(a) Staphylococcus aureus

(b) Salmonella

(c) Clostridium perfringens

(d) Bacillus cereus


RRB Model Question No.3. An absolute contraindication for Oral Contraceptive Pill is

(a) Age over 40 years

(b) Mild hypertension

(c) Epilepsy

(d) Cancer of the breast

RRB Model Question No.4. Norplant is an example of a

(a) Subdermal implant

(b) Vaginal ring

(c) First generation IUD

(d) Second generation IUD

RRB Model Question No.5. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was enacted in the year

(a) 1975 (b) 1971

(c) 1983 (d) 1997

Railway Nurses Recruitment Exam sample Questions 2023

 

RRB Model Question No.6  The scope of family planning services includes:

(a) Advice on sterility

(b) The proper spacing and limitation of births

(c) Education on parenthood

(d) All of the above

RRB Model Question No.7 A Net Reproduction Rate of 1 can be achieved only if the Couple Protection Rate exceeds

(a) 40% (b) 50%

(c) 60% (d) 70%

Railway Staff Nurse Exam Model Questions

 

RRB Model Question No. 8 An example of Post-Conceptional method is

 

(a) Menstrual induction

(b) Subdermal implants

(c) Vaginal rings

(d) Injectable contraceptives

RRB Model Question No.9 Rickettsial pox is transmitted by the insect vector:

(a) Louse (b) Flea

(c) Tick (d) Mite

RRB Model Question No.10 Average incubation period of rubella is

(a) 10 days (b) 14 days

(c) 18 days (d) 21 days

RRB Model Question No. 11 How many types of vaccines are there against Japanese Enceptialitis-?

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

RRB Model Question No. 12 All of the following are elements of primary health care. EXCEPT:

(a) Immunization against major infectious diseases

(b) Provision of essential drugs

(c) Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases

(d) Camps for periodic health checkup

AIIMS, Railway and other Staff Nurse Recruitment Objective Type Questions Part-31