Friday, January 4, 2019

ESIC Staff Nurse Exam Question Paper-Q. No 51 to 100 Questions

ESIC Staff Nurse Exam Question Paper-Q. No 51 to 100 Questions


51. The heat regulatory cetre is located in the :
  • Thalamus
  • Hypothalamus
  • Limbic system
  • Medulla
52. A necessary safety precaution when ambulating a patient is to :
  • Have family members
  • Have patients wear well fitted shoes
  • Have atleast two persons
  • None of these
53. Fasting blood sugar is done to detect ;
  • Amount  of insulin in blood
  • Amount of glucose in blood
  • Course of diabetes
  • Treatment of diabetes

54. The endotracheal tube is put into the :
  • Oesophagus
  • Stomach
  • Trachea
  • Nasal cavity
55. Which portion of the heart receives oxygenated blood :
  • Left auricle
  • Right auricle
  • Left ventricle
  • Right ventricle
56. The following are absorbable sutures except:
  • Catgut
  • Vicryl
  • Nylon
  • Monocryl
57. The embryo/foetus gets its food supply from:
  • Arteries of the mother
  • The uterus
  • The Placenta
  • The amniotic sac.
58. Cretinism is due to deficiency of :
  • Thyroxine
  • Estrogen
  • Epinesphrine
  • Renin
59. When the patient lies on his back with one pillow under the head is called:
  • Trendelenburg position
  • Genupectoral position
  • Lithotomy position
  • Erect position
60. The sources of wound infection are:
  • Poor hygiene in nurses or patients
  • Infected droplets from mouths and noses
  • Cross infection from othe wounds
  • All the above
61. Diet prescribed for patient having mal absorption syndrome is:
  • Folic acid
  • Vitamin B12
  • Corticotropin
  • A gluten free diet
62. Septecemia is :
  • Spread of organism in blood stream
  • Invasion and multiplication of bacteria in blood stream
  • Spread of toxic product in blood stream
  • Process of pus formation
63. Oedema is :
  • Depression or deficiency of the quality of blood
  • Excess of fluid in tissue
  • Vitamin deficiency
  • Malnutrition and dehydration
64. Vomiting of blood is called :
  • Epistaxis
  • Haemoptysis
  • Haematemesis
  • Haemothorax

65. Osteoporisis is disease of :
  • Skin
  • Bones
  • Brain
  • Muscles
66. Disorders of uterine tube and ovaries are:
  • Acute salpingits
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Tumors
  • All the Above
67. Gravida denotes the :
  • Pregnant state
  • Previous pregnancy
  • Pregnancy at the stage of 30 and above
  • All the above
68. What is the primary reason for the gradual change of position of the patient after surgery ?
  • To prevent sudden drop of BP
  • To prevent muscle injury
  • To prevent respiratory distress
  • None of these
69. Which of the following methods of intracranial pressure monitoring provides most accurate results:
  • Epidural catheter
  • Intraventicular catheter
  • Subarachnoid catheter
  • Intravertebral catheter
70. Which of the instructions are most appropriate to be provided by the nurse to a patient undergone cataract surgery :
  • Elevate the head of the bed while sleeping
  • Keep the room environment cool and dry
  • Avoid climbing stairs
  • Take a stool softner daily at night
71. The sign and symptoms of retinal detachment include the following except:
  • Sudden severe pain in eye
  • A curtain falling across the field of vision
  • Light flashes in the visual field
  • Floaters in the field of vision

72. A nurse is expected to find all the symptoms in GB syndrome except:
  • Hypertonia
  • Areflexia
  • Parathesia
  • Urinary retention
73. The earliest signs of the postoperative shock is monitored by nurse by observing the:
  • Pulse rate
  • Pulse pressure
  • Body temperature
  • Urine output
74. ATP does not form in ….
  • Glycolysis
  • TCA Cycle
  • Fatty Acid Oxidation
  • HMP Pathway
75. The code of ethics is composed and published by the :
  • National league of nursing
  • American nursing association
  • American medical association
  • National institute of health
76. Oxygen saturation is measured by:
  • Pulse oximeter
  • Thermometer
  • Manometer
  • Pulse transducer
77. The correct position to palpate the apical pulse is at the :
  • Left midclavicular line at the level of second intercostals space
  • Left midclavicular line at the level of fifth intercostals space
  • Left axillary line at the level of fifth intercostals space
  • Left midclavicular line at the level of seventh intercostals space
78. An important nursing responsibility for a patient after an invasive cardiovascular diagnostic study is :
  • Discourage fluid intake and place the patient in Prone Position
  • Apply heat to the puncture site and passively exercise the involved extremity
  • Limit motion of the affected extremity and assess the puncture site
  • Restrict fluid intake and encourage ambulation

79. Ethical dilemmas can be best solved by:
  • Relationship
  • Ethical principle
  • Homocare nurse
  • Code of ethics for nurses
80. The most common cause of coronary artery disease is :
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Stress
  • Vasospasm of coronary artery
  • Endocrine Quiz
81. Application of cool clothes to the auxulla decreases the body temperature through:
  • Conduction
  • Convection
  • Evaporation
  • Radiation
82. Who is known as “Lady with a Lamp”?
  • Mother Teresa
  • Joan of Arc
  • Sister Nivedita
  • Florence Nightingale
83. Increased respiratory rate is called :
  • Tachycardia
  • Bradycardia
  • Tachypnea
  • Bradypnea
84. Difference between diastolic and systolic pressure is :
  • Pulse pressure
  • Pulse deficit
  • Cardiac output
  • Blood pressure
85. A jerky pulse with full expansion and sudden collapse is :
  • Collapsing pulse
  • Corrigan’s pulse
  • Running pulse
  • Blood pulse
86. Cessation of breathing for a short period is :
  • Orthopnea
  • Dyspnea
  • Apnea
  • Bradypnea

87. To assess the patients posterior tibial pulse a nurse would palpitate :
  • Behind the knee
  • Over the medical malleolus
  • Below the medial malleolus
  • Below the lateral malleolus
88. To correctly palpate the patients skin for temperature determination, a nurse will use the :
  • Base of hands
  • Fingertips of hands
  • Dorsal surface of hands
  • Palmer surface of hands
89. For assessing range of joint movement the nurse will ask the patient to move away from the body evaluating the movement of :
  • Flexion
  • Extent ion
  • Abduction
  • Adduction
90. The position used to assess the extension of hip joint is :
  • Supine
  • Prone
  • Sitting
  • Dorsal recumbent
91. An excessive vomiting and haemorrhage leads to :
  • Hypovolemia
  • Hypervolemia
  • Fluid overload
  • Oedema
92. Increased sweating leads to :
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypernatremia
  • Hypervolemia
  • Oedema

93. Rapid administration of blood containing citrate cause :
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypercalcemia
94.  The signs of fetal distress are:
  • Fetal heart sound is less than 120/mt
  • Fetal heart sound is irregular
  • Meconium stained liquor
  • All of these
95. When providing a patients hydration status, a nurse would initiate :
  • Provision of variety of fluids
  • Provide ice chips
  • Give fluid on patients demand
  • Maintain inflow and outflow chart
96. The drip that is running satisfactorily may stop because :
  • The vein is obstructed by too tight a bandage
  • Blood clotted in the cannula
  • The head of pressure is too low
  • All of the above
97. A Positive Benedict’s test is not given by :
  • Sucrose
  • Lactose
  • Maltose
  • Glucose
98. Renal threshold for glucose is decreased in :
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Insulinoma
  • Renal glycosuria
  • Alimentary glycosuria

99. In the diet of a diabetic patient, the recommended carbohydrate intake should preferably be in the form of :
  • Monosaccharides
  • Disaccharides
  • Polysaccharides
  • All of these
100. Kwashiorkor occurs when the diet is severely deficient in :
  • Iron
  • Calories
  • Proteins
  • Essential fatty acids
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Monday, December 31, 2018

ESIC Staff Nurse Exam Previous Question Paper- Question No. 1 to 50

ESIC Published Notifications for Recruitment of 1500+ Staff Nurses in ESIC Hospitals all over India. The Written Examination (125 Marks - Multiple choice objective type paper)- I. 100 Questions (100 marks) will be based on Technical professional/ Subject/Post & II. 25 (25 Marks) Questions on Aptitude / General Awareness / General intelligence / Arithmetic Ability. Going through Previous Question Papers is important to succeed in the Examination. Earlier Many Question Papers published at www.nursingwork.in and https://nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com Refer the Question answers given in the above websites for securing eligible Marks in the Examination. Here we published 1- 50 Questions, remaining Questions will be followed with the given link below

 1. Electro cardiagram is :
  1. Recording of peristalsis
  2. Recording of brain wave activety
  3. Recording of heart activity
  4. None of the above

2. The average of 8 numbers is 14. The average of 6 of these numbers is 16.. What is the average of the remaining 2 numbers ?
  1. 12
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 10
3. A coin placed at the bottom of a container appears to rise as the container is slowly filled with water. This is due to “
  1. Deflection of Light
  2. Polarisation of Light
  3. Refraction of Light
  4. Reflection of Light
4. 13 chairs and 5 tables were bought for rs 8280. if the average cost of the table will be rs 1227. What is the average cost of a chair ?

  1. rs 175
  2. rs 165
  3. rs 2145
  4. None of these


Directions: ( Question Nos. 5 and 6 ) Two words are given in the following questions with a blank in between. Salect a word form the choices given which is most relevant to the two other words.

5. Matchstick (____) rifle:

  1. round
  2. war
  3. fire
  4. hunter

6. Clock (_____) fire :

  1. surprise
  2. time
  3. alarm
  4. burn

Direction for Question NO. 7 & 8. There are six children Anuj, Shiva, Krishna, Deva, Vinod and Bharti Playing football. Anuj and vinod are brothers. Bharti is the sister of Vinod Krishana is only son of Anuj’s uncle. Shiva and Deva are daughters of the only brother of Krishana’s father.

7. How is krishana related to Bharti ?

  1. Cousin
  2. Son
  3. Brother
  4. Uncle

8. How many male players are There ?
  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

Directions for Q. No. 9 & 10. A set of inter relationship diagrams are given below. Select the deagram which represent the relationship best in the questions given.

9. Animals, Camel, Giraffe :

  1. A
  2. D
  3. H
  4. E

10. Uneducated people, poor people, unemployed people:

  1. E
  2. B
  3. D
  4. H

Directions for 11 and 12. What will come next in the series.

11. CXDW, EVFU, GTHS, IRJQ ……………….. :

  1. KPLO
  2. KPMO
  3. KPNO
  4. None of these


12. 4, 16, 32, 128, 256 …………… :


  1. 512
  2. 768
  3. 1034
  4. 1024

Directions for 13 and 14 : Each face of a cube has a different colour. its top face is painted BLACK. BLUE is between RED and Yellow, GREEN is between BLACK and WHITE. WHITE is between YELLOW and RED.

13. Which colour is at the bottom:
  1. Red
  2. white
  3. black
  4. yellow

14. ‘Suma’ is shorter than ‘Uma’, ‘Neha’ is taller than ‘Suma’, ‘Sudha’, ‘Sudha’ is taller than ‘Uma’, but shorter than ‘Hema’. ‘Uma is taller than ‘Neha’. Who is the tallest among them ?

  1. Uma
  2. Sudha
  3. Neha
  4. Hema


15. Which country gives Magsaysay awards ?

  1. China
  2. The Philippines
  3. India
  4. Britain


16. The correct sequence of the Indian Civilian “Padma” Awards, starting from the Lowest to highest is :

  1. Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan, Bharat Ratna
  2. Padma shri, Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan
  3. Padma Shri, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, Bharat Ratna
  4. Bharat Ratna, Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Shri

17. Indian player Deepika Kumari who claimed her maiden World cup in Antalaya recently, belongs to which game:

  1. Athletics
  2. Billiards & Snooker
  3. Squash
  4. Archery


18. One – Fourth of a number exceeds one-seventh of itself by 24. The number is:

  1. 324
  2. 224
  3. 124
  4. None of these
19. 1 dioptre of power of a lens:

  1. Whose focal length is 1 meter
  2. Whose focal length is 0.01 meter
  3. Whose focal length is 10 meters
  4. Whose focal length is 100 meters

20. Match the correct election symbols of political parties and identify the mismatched one :

  1. Indian National Congress – Hand
  2. Nationalist Congress party – Clock
  3. Communist Party of India – Ears of corn and Sickle
  4. Bhartiya Janta Party – Lotus
21. Which vitamin is called Alpha-tecopherol:
  1. Vitamin K
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Vitamin B
  4. Vitamin E
22. Blood pressure is measured by:
  1. Nanometer
  2. Sphygmomanometer
  3. Barometer
  4. Calorimeter
23. Which part of body is affected in typhoid:
  1. Liver
  2. Lungs
  3. Intestines
  4. Pancreas
24. Alpha-Keratin is protein present in:
  1. Blood
  2. Wool
  3. Eggs
  4. Skin
25. By increasing its speed by 8% a bus can reach 15 minutes early. What is the normal time taken by the bus to reach its destination:
  1. 2½ hrs.
  2. 3-3/8 hrs.
  3. 3-5/8 hrs.
  4. None of these
26. The average marks obtained by 20 students is 45. The average of first ten is 50 and of last 9 is 40. What are the marks obtained by the 11th student:
  1. 40
  2. 30
  3. 0
  4. 45
27.  if the side of a cube is decreased by 10% the percentage decrease in the volume of the cube is :
  1. 19%
  2. 72.9%
  3. 10%
  4. 27.1%

28. A man can row with the stream at 6 Km/hr. and against the stream at 4 Km/hr. Find the speed of the current :
  1. 1 Km
  2. 5 Km
  3. 4 Km
  4. 2 Km
29. Out of 1/3, 1/5, 4/23 and 2/11, the smallest number is :
  1. 1/5
  2. 1/3
  3. 2/11
  4. 4/23
30.  In a stock  clearance sale. Bata Shoe Company announces 20% discount. If The discounted price of a pair of shoes is RS. 1520/, find its original price :
  1. Rs 1950
  2. Rs 1800
  3. Rs 1900
  4. Rs 2000
31. The patient anziety during the preoperative period would decrease by which of the following nursing actions:
  1. Encouraging sleep
  2. Reassuring the patient that the surgical staff are competent professional
  3. Spending time listening to the patient and answering questiosns
  4. Expaining all procedures thoroughly
32. The mean mark obtained by 7 students in a group is 226. if the marks obtained by 6 of them are 340, 180, 260, 56, 275 and 307 respectively. find the marks obtained by the sevenths student:
  1. 164
  2. 226
  3. 340
  4. Cannot be determined
33. Glycosylated haemoglobin is determined to diagnose:
  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. Gout
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. All the above
34. Serum lipase level increases in:
  1. Acute pancreatitis
  2. Diabetes mellitus
  3. Paget’s disease
  4. Gaucher’s disease
35. Which of the following clinical features alert the nurse to lithium toxicity ?
  1. Increasingly agitated behavior
  2. Marked increased food intake
  3. Sudden increase in blood pressure
  4. Anorexia with nausea and vomiting
36. Sources of folic acid are :
  1. Banana
  2. Carrots
  3. Spinach
  4. Papaya

37. Which of the following hormones is not produced by placenta:
  1. Progesterone
  2. Testosterone
  3. Estrogen
  4. Human chronic gonadotropin
38. A multigravida 32 years old lady, admitted at  30 weeks with bleeding per vagina, which of the action the nurse should first do for her:
  1. Provide perineal pads
  2. Take consent for cesarean section
  3. Perfoam pervaginal examination
  4. Check the fetal heart rate and maternal blood pressure
39. Digoxin is administered intravenously to the patient as drug acts to:
  1. Decrease electrical conductivity to heart
  2. Dilate coronary arteries
  3. Increase myocardial contractility
  4. Decrease cardiac dysrrhythmias
40. A Patient has undergone mitral valve replacement having persistent bleeding from surgical incision in the early postoperative period, which drug will be administered:
  1. Quinidine Sulphate
  2. Protamine sulfate
  3. Vitamin-C
  4. Warfarin Sodium
41. A nurse assess the patients respiratory status. Which of the following symptoms be an early indicator of hypoxia in an unconscious patient:
  1. Restlessness
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Decreased respiration
  4. Hypotension
42. Episiotomy is best done and commonly practiced in:
  1. Laterally
  2. Mediolaterally
  3. Medially
  4. J shaped
43. Which of the following would most likely be a major nursing diagnosis for a patient with acute pancreatitis ?
  1. Impaired swallowing
  2. Ineffective airway clearance
  3. Fluid volume excess
  4. Altered nutrition less than body requirements

44. The nurse is assessing the colostomy of a patient who has had an abdominal perineal resection for a bowel tumor. Which of the following assessment indicate that the colostomy is beginning to function?
  1. The patient ability to tolerate foods
  2. Absent bowel sounds
  3. The passage of flatus
  4. Bloody drainage from the colostomy
45. The nurse evaluates the adequacy of the neonates oxygen by monitoring:
  1. Arterial blood gas levels
  2. Cyanosis of hands and feet
  3. Pulse rate continuously
  4. The percentage of oxygen received
46. A patient received codeine sulphate for severe back pain, which of the following obsevation must be done by the nurse:
  1. Monitor bowel activity
  2. Monitor fluid balance
  3. Monitor peripheral pulses
  4. Monitor for hypertension
47. A patient progress form pre-eclampsia to eclampsia, the nurse’s  first action should be to :
  1. Administer magnesium sulphate intravenously
  2. Administer oxygen by face mask
  3. Clear and maintain an open airway
  4. Assess the blood pressure and fetal heart rate

48. The immediate nursing action where patient has cardiac arrest:
  1. Put him on ventilation
  2. Begin O2 therapy
  3. Begin mouth to mouth resp.
  4. O2 not be given till doctor arrives
49. Cholecystography is performed to :
  1. Detect conditions of the stomach
  2. Detect obstruction in the duodenum
  3. Diagnose stones in the gall bladder
  4. None of these

50. Retention of abnormal amount of fluid in the body is due to :
  1. Potassium
  2. Sodium
  3. Chloride
  4. Calcium

Sunday, December 30, 2018

ESIC Staff Nurse Exam Question Paper

ESIC Staff Nurses Recruitment Examination will be conducted soon for filling up vacant posts in Employess State insurance Corporation Hospitals. The candidates applied for the post of Staff Nurse and planning to apply are need to go through the previous Staff Nurse Recruitment Examination conducted by ESIC. www.nursingwork.in admins are happy to share the Previous ESIC Question papers at www.nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com to help the candidates to get idea of Examination Questions. Some Questions are published here and the total 100 Questions are uploaded in pdf. format. Click on the following links to download the Question paper in Pdf. format



16. Tuberculosis is caused by polluted:
(a) Air (b) Water
(c) Food (d) Fomites.
17. Polio is transmitted through:
(a) Water (b) Air
(c) Food (d) Insects
18. A person with no sign of disease but may transmit, it is called:
(a) A resistant person (b) Immune person
(c) A carrier person (d) An allergic person.
19. For eye examination the instrument used is:
(a) Stethoscope (b) Otoscope
(c) Opthalmoscope (d) Percussion hammer
20. Following is a contagious disease:
(a) Malaria (b) Filaria
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Hookworm infestation
21. Thyroid gland is present in:
(a) Chest (b) Abdomen
(c) Neck (d) Back
22. Who is regarded as “Father of Medicine”?
(a) Paracelsus (b) Aristotle
(c) Galen (d) Hippocrates.
23. The instrument used to measure blood pressure is:
(a) Stethescope (b) Sphygmomanometer
(c) Electrocardiograph (d) Rotameter
24. Dehydration is caused in the human body due to:
(a) Less of vitamins (b) Loss of water
(c) Loss of Salt (d) Loss of minerals.
25. All these are sterilized by chemicals except:
(a) Scissors (b) Endoscopes
(c) Gauze (d) Cables

26. B.C.G. vaccine is given to protect the child against:
(a) Diphtheria (b) Tetanus
(c) Typhoid (d) Tuberculosis
27. Protein deficiency disease is known as:
(a) Kwashiorkar (b) Cushing’s disease
(c) Gaucher’s disease (d) None of these above
28. Bone deformation can occur due to lack of:
(a) Calcium (b) Phosphorus
(c) Vitamin D (d) All of these.
29. A drug can:
(a) Cure disease (b) Diagnose disease
(c) Prevent disease (d) All of the above.
30. Vitamin ‘D’ deficiency may result in:
(a) Rickets (b) Beriberi
(c) Scurvey (d) Night blindness
31. Which is not cancer:
(a) Leukaemia (b) Glaucoma
(c) Carcinoma (d) Sarcoma
32. Vitamin essential for coagulation of blood is:
(a) B (b) D
(c) K (d) A
33. Who invented thermometer:
(a) Galileo Galilee (b) Lord Kelvin
(c) Celsius (d) Thomas J. Manning

34. Which of the following vitamins is considered as good for eyes:
(a) K (b) A
(c) B (d) C

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Other Staff Nurse Examination Question Paper Click here

MOH Question Answers

1. While reviewing stress management technique with a patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, what would the nurse identify as MOST appropriate?

  • Relaxing in a warm bubble bath

  • Yoga in a cool room

  • Sun bathing

  • Cross –country running.

Answer: Relaxing in a warm bubble bath


2. he nurse is assessing the growth and development of a healthy three year old child. The nurse should expect the child to be able to:

  • Ride a bicycle

  • Jump rope

  • Throw a ball overhead

  • Hop on one foot.

Answer: Throw a ball overhead.

3. A patient with bowlegs due to abnormal bone formations and deformities has calcium level of 7.5mg/100ml. Which of the following foods would the nurse most likely instruct the patient to add to a diet?

  • Organ meats

  • Whole grains

  • Egg yolks

  • Chicken meat

Answer: Whole grains

4. When caring for a patient with an ostomy the nurse knows that extra skin protection for the personal skin is MOST important for those patients with a (an):

  • Ileostomy

  • Ascending colostomy

  • Transverse colostomy

  • Sigmoid colostomy

Answer: Ileostomy

5. The nurse calls together an interdisciplinary team with members from medicine , social service , the clergy and nutritional services to care for a patient with a terminal illness. Which of the following type of care would the team most likely be providing?

  • Palliative

  • Curative

  • Respite

  • Preventive

Answer: PalliativeT

6.A nurse is providing care to a patient with a new skin graft on the leg. The patient is upset and the nurse notes copious red drainage oozing around the dressing the nurse should immediately:

  • Lift the dressing to assess the area

  • Ask if the patient is having any pain

  • Apply firm pressure for 10 to 15 minutes

  • Assess the apical pulse.

Answer: C: Apply firm pressure for 10 to 15 minutes

7.To minimize the toddler from scratching and picking at healing skin graft, the nurse should utilize:

  • Mild sedatives

  • Hand mittens

  • Punishment for picking

  • Distractions

Hand mittens

8. Most common cause of perinatal mortality in multiple pregnancy

 A:-Dystocia

 B:-Anaemia

 C:-Interlocking

 D:-Prematurity

Answer:-  D:-Prematurity

9. A client with angina complaints that the angina pain is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often in the morning. On further assessment a nurse notes that the pain occurs in the absence of precipitating factors . This type of angina pain is best described as:

  • Stable angina

  • Unstable angina

  • Variant angina

  • Non angina pain.

Answer: Variant Angina.

10.  A patient recent underwent coronary artery graft (CABG) surgery. Which of the following nursing diagnose PRIORITY?

  • Anxiety

  • Impaired gas exchange

  • Acute pain

  • Sleep deprivation

  • Answer: Acute pain