Nursing Question answers for upcoming Staff Nurse/ Nursing Officer Recruitment Exam is published below. Answers given in the bottom of all 50 questions. pdf/ txt format.
Published on 12/10/2020
Author-Sathish, Akshatha
No. of Questions with Answers: 50
1. The principles of ethics in nursing research include
(a) Beneficence
(b) Respect for human dignity
(c) Justice
(d) All the above
2. Persistent eating of non-edible substances is known as
(a) Bruxism (b) Encopresis
(c) Stuffering (d) Pica
3. Flag sign of hair may seen in
(a) Marasmus (b) Kwashiorker
(c) Scurvey (d) Pellagra
4. A nurse reach the result of mantoux test on a 3 years old child. The results indicate an area of induration measuring 10 mm. the nurse would interpret there result as
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Inconclusive
(d) Requires a repeat test
5. Which is not included in Tetralogy of Fallot?
(a) VSD
(b) Pulmonary stenosis
(c) ASD
(d) Over riding of aorta
6. A nurse is preparing for the admission of a child with acute stage Kawasaki disease. On the assessment of the child, the nurse expected to note which of the following manifestation?
(a) Cracked lips
(b) A normal appearance
(c) Conjunctival hyperemia
(d) Desquamation of skin
7. A physician has prescribed ‘oxygen as needed’ for an infant with congestive heart failure. In which situation should the nurse administer oxygen to the infant?
(a) During sleep
(b) Whom changing the diapers
(c) When the mother is holding the infant
(d) When withdrawing blood for electrolyte testing
8. Coughing and choking during feedings and unexplained cyanosis in infants are the signs of
(a) Cleft palate
(b) Tracheoesophageal fistula
(c) Pyloric sterosis
(d) ASD
9. A nurse is assessing a child who is admitted to hospital with a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What would be the expected symptom?
(a) Diarrhea
(b) Projectile vomiting
(c) Diarrhea
(d) Bilious vomiting
10. A nurse instructs the parents of a child with leukemia regarding measures related to monitoring for infection which statement, if made by the parent, indicates a need for further instruction?
(a) “I will take rectal temperature daily”
(b) “I will inspect the skin daily for redness”
(c) “I will inspect the mouth daily for lesions”
(d) “I will perform proper hand washing techniques”
11. Saw tooth appearance of p wave is seen in
(a) Atrial fibrillation
(b) Atrial flutter
(c) Junctional rhythm
(d) Left atrial enlargement
12. Which of the following is not a disorder of thought?
(a) Delusion (b) Perseveration
(c) Tomgentiality (d) Ecstasy
13. A client is diagnosed with major depression. Which of the following features would be most critical for the nurse to assess?
(a) Sleep disturbance
(b) Feeling of worthlessness
(c) Difficulty with concentration
(d) Suicidal ideation
14. ‘Monophobia’ means
(a) Fear of being alone
(b) Fear of strangers
(c) Fear of closed spaces
(d) Fear of heights
15. A nurse assesses a client who is admitted with diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder, mania. The symptom presented by the client that requires the nurse’s immediate intervention is
(a) Outlandish behaviours and inappropriate dress
(b) Non stop physical activity and poor nutritional intake
(c) Grandiose delusions of being a king
(d) Constant and incessant talking that includes sexual contents
Bundle of Nursing Exam Practice Question Answers available here
16. Antipsychotic may produce extra-pyramidal symptoms as side effect. This include all of the following except
(a) Parkinsonism (b) Dystonia
(c) Hyperpyrexia (d) Tardive dyskinesia
17. A nurse is monitoring a client for signs of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following would alert the nurse to the potential for withdrawal delirium?
(a) Hypotension, ataxia, hunger
(b) Stupor, agitation, muscular rigidity
(c) Hypotension, hand tremors, agitation
(d) Hypertension, changes in level of consciousness, hallucinations
18. Which of the following is an atypical antidepressant?
(a) Escitalopram (b) Lithium
(c) Amoxapine (d) Fluoxetine
19. Sexual gratification that involves receiving pain is called
(a) Masochism (b) Sadism
(c) Voyeurism (d) Fetishism
20. On assessing a client, the nurse notes her findings as very suspicious, delusion of persecution, auditory hallucinations and risk for showing violence. The patient may be suffering from
(a) Mania
(b) Depression
(c) Paranoid schizophrenia
(d) Psychosomatic disorder
21. Which is the late sign of preeclampsia?
(a) Proteinuria (b) Head ache
(c) Epigastric pain (d) Blurred vision
22. A client tells the nurse that the first day of her last menstrual period was 22, July 2008. What is the estimates date of delivery?
(a) 7, May 2009 (b) 29 April 2009
(c) 22 April 2009 (d) 6 March 2009
23. A nurse teaches that the most frequent side effect associated with the use of an IUD is
(a) Rapture of uterus
(b) Tubal pregnancy
(c) Expulsion of IUC
(d) Excessive menstrual flow
24. Which is the most comfortable therapeutic position for a client with pelvic inflammatory disease?
(a) Sim’s position
(b) Fowler’s position
(c) Supine position with knees flexed
(d) Lithotomy position with head elevated
25. A nurse performing assessment on a client who is at 38 weeks gestation and notes that the fetal heart rate is 175 beats/minute. On the basis of this, the appropriate nursing action is
(a) Notify the physician
(b) Record the finding
(c) Check the mother’s heart rate
(d) Tell the client that the fetal heart rate is normal
26. A pregnant client asks the nurse when she will be able to begin to feel the fetus move. The nurse responds by telling the mother that fetal movements will be noted between which of the following weeks of gestation?
(a) 6-8 (b) 8-10
(c) 12-16 (d) 16-20
27. A nurse is performing assessment of a primipara during her second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following indicates an abnormal finding that necessitates further testing?
(a) Quickening
(b) Braxton Hicks contractions
(c) Consistent increase in fundal height
(d) Fetal heart rate of 180 beats/minutes
28. Nitrazine test is used to
(a) detect fetal heart rate
(b) to assess placental oxygenation
(c) to assess the position of fetus
(d) to detect amniotic fluid leakage
29. A nurse instructing a pregnant client regarding measures to increase iron in the diet. The nurse tells the client to consume which food that contains highest source of dietary iron?
(a) Milk
(b) Potatoes
(c) Peanuts
(d) Green leafy vegetables
30. A nurse caring for a new born infant with spina bifida who is scheduled
for the surgical closure of the sac. In the preoperative period, the
priority nursing diagnosis should be
(a) Risk for infection
(b) Risk for aspiration
(c) Risk for activity in tolerance
(d) Risk for altered growth and development
31. For a client with severe preeclampsia, which of the following is prescribed to prevent seizures?
(a) Magnesium sulphate
(b) Carbamazepine
(c) Calcium gluconate
(d) Sodium valproate
32. A nurse providing instructions to a pregnant client with HIV infection regarding care of new born. The client asks the nurse about the feeding options. The best response by the nurse is
(a) “You will need to bottle feed the new born infant”
(b) “You will need to feed the infant by nasogastric tube feeding”
(c) “You will be able to breast feed for 6 months”
(d) “You will be able to breast feed after 6 months”
33. Relationship of the spine of the fetus to the spine of mother is known as
(a) Attitude (b) Lie
(c) Presentation (d) Station
34. Immediately after an amniotomy has been performed, the nurse should first assess
(a) For bladder distention
(b) For cervical dilation
(c) Maternal blood pressure
(d) Fetal heart rate
35. A nurse explains true and false labor signs to a pregnant client. The nurse determines that the client understands the signs of true labor if she makes which statement?
(a) “I won’t be able to labor until the baby engages”
(b) “My contractions will be felt in the abdominal area”
(c) “My contractions will not be as painful if I walk around”
(d) My contractions will increase in duration and intensely
36. A nurse is caring for a client in labor. The nurse determines that the client is beginning the second stage of labor when which of the following is noted?
(a) The contractions are regular
(b) Membranes have reptured
(c) The cervix is dilated completely
(d) Client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid
37. The word ‘Dystocia’ means
(a) Difficulty in dilation of cervix
(b) Difficult labor
(c) Prolapse of cord
(d) Difficulty to deliver placenta
38. A 22nd week gestational mother complains about severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding. What can be reason behind this?
(a) Placenta previa (b) Abruptio placenta
(c) Placenta accreta (d) Placenta increta
39. A nurse is caring for one day postpartum clients. Which of the following is an abnormal finding that require further intervention?
(a) mild afterpains
(b) Pulse rate of 60 beats/minute
(c) Colostrum discharge from both breasts
(d) Lachia that has red colour and foul smell
40. The nurse should instruct the mother that she should expect normal bowel elimination to return
(a) 3 days of post partum
(b) 7 days of postpartum
(c) On the day of delivery
(d) Within 2 weeks of postpartum
41. The process of transferring a selected nursing task to one or more individuals who is competent to perform that specific task, is called
(a) Variance (b) Accountability
(c) Empowerment (d) Delegation
42. The leader who dominates the group and commands rather than seeks suggestions, is called
(a) Democratic leader
(b) Autocratic leader
(c) Laissez – faire leader
(d) Situational leader
43. Low potassium diet is recommended for clients with
(a) Cushing’s syndrome
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Addison’s disease
(d) Hypokalemia
44. The standard deviation of a sampling distribution is referred to as
(a) Test statistic
(b) Standard error
(c) Confidence interval
(d) Test of significance
45. Data collection about everyone in a group or population and has the accuracy and details, is called
(a) Census
(b) Survey
(c) Probability sampling
(d) Cluster sampling
46. A contraction stress test is performed on a pregnant client and results
is documented as negative. The name interprets the finding as
(a) A normal test result
(b) Abnormal test result
(c) High risk for fetal demise
(d) Need for cesarean delivery
47. Which is best drug of choice for amoebic dysentery?
(a) Ciprafloxacin (b) Metronidazole
(c) Amoxicillin (d) Omeprazole
48. Which of the following actions would be highest priority in the treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
(a) Maintaining Blood Volume
(b) Correcting Coagulation Deficit
(c) Correcting the Triggering Cause
(d) Maintaining strict intake and output chart
49. Surgical gowns are considered sterile
(a) Only from knees to shoulder level, front and the sleeves
(b) Only from the gloves to the shoulder level
(c) Only from waist to shoulder level at the front and sleeves
(d) Only back
50. Which of the following is a side effect of morphine?
(a) Increased blood pressure
(b) Decreased respiratory rate
(c) Reduced mucus secretion
(d) Visual disturbance
ANSWERS for the all above 50 Nursing Questions
1 D 26 D
2 D 27 D
3 B 28 D
4 A 29 D
5 C 30 A
6 C 31 A
7 D 32 A
8 B 33 B
9 B 34 D
10 A 35 D
11 B 36 C
12 D 37 B
13 D 38 B
14 A 39 D
15 B 40 A
16 C 41 D
17 D 42 B
18 C 43 C
19 A 44 B
20 C 45 A
21 C 46 A
22 B 47 B
23 D 48 C
24 B 49 C
25 A 50 B
Bundle of Nursing Exam Practice Question Answers available here
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