Friday, November 18, 2022

CHO Exam Nursing Question Answers 2022

CHO Exam Nursing Question Answers 2022

National Health mission published Notification to recruit 10000+ Community Health Officers in the Year 2022. The Selection will be done after the Competative Examination (Computer Based Test) on Merit Basis. The Model Questions for Preparing the Nursing Staff Recruitment Computer Based Test is published below. You can also go throgh other Commission Recruitment Examinations question papers to gain more knowledge. Railway Staff Nurse Exam, AIIMS Nursing Officer Exam, OSSSC nursing officer Exam, PGIMER Nurses Recruitment Exam Railway Staff Nurse Recruitment Examination Question Papers may be helpful for preparing the Computer Based Test for Community Health Officer (CHO) Recruitment

Question No. 40181. MTP can be done up to:

a 12 weeks b 16 weeks

c 20 weeks d 10 weeks

Answer : A or C

 

Question No. 40182.Sharp instruments are sterilized under

a Dry heat b Boiling 

c Fumigation d Radiation

Answer : A


Question No. 40183. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is

(a) normal saline (b) distilled water

(c) dextrose (d) none of the above

Answer : A

 

Question No. 40184. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in

(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours

(c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours

Answer : B

 

Question No. 40185. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at

(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week

(c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year

Answer : A

Question No. 40186. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by

(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide

(c) health worker male (d) health worker female

Answer : A

 

Question No. 40187. Source of most polio infections are

(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases

(c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)

Answer : C

 

CHO Exam Nursing Question Answers 2022

Question No. 40188.Which of the following Fontanel in child is the first to close?

a Frontal b Occipital

c Sphenoid d Mastoid

Answer : B

Question No. 40189.Fish is the source of all expcet?

a Iron b Iodine

c vitamin d phosphorus

Answer : A

Question No. 40190. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include

(a) IM injections (b) Tonsillectomy

(c) DPT (d) all of the above

Answer : D

Wednesday, November 9, 2022

30 ANM Nursing Exam Questions

30 ANM Nursing Exam Questions

ANM Nurses Recruitment Previous Question papers are most important for preparing the upcoming ANM Recruitment Examinations. Here we published 30 Questions for Sl. No. 991 to 1020, The Solved Question papers of ANM Nurses Recruitment Exam conducted in   (Thiruvananthapuram)     Madhya Pradesh     (Bhopal)     Maharashtra     (Mumbai)      Manipur     (Imphal)     Meghalaya     (Shillong)     Mizoram     (Aizawl)     Nagaland     (Kohima)     Odisha  Uttarakhand     (Dehradun)     Uttar Pradesh     (Lucknow)     West Bengal     (Kolkata)   (Bhubaneshwar) Andhra Pradesh     (Amaravati)     Arunachal Pradesh     (Itanagar)     Assam     (Dispur)     Bihar     (Patna)     Chhattisgarh     (Raipur)     Goa     (Panaji)     Gujarat     (Gandhinagar)      Haryana     (Chandigarh)     Himachal Pradesh     (Shimla)     Jharkhand     (Ranchi)     Karnataka     (Bangalore)     Kerala       Punjab     (Chandigarh)     Rajasthan     (Jaipur)      Sikkim     (Gangtok)     Tamil Nadu     (Chennai)     Telangana     (Hyderabad)     Tripura     (Agartala) are uploaded in our website www.nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com.

ANM Question No 991-1000


ANM Question No 991.    In immunity school entrants with BCG, you not obliged to secure parental consent. This is because of which legal document?

A.    PD 996
B.    RA 7864
C.    Presidential Proclamation No. 6
D.    Presidential Proclamation No. 46

ANM Question No 992.    Which immunization produces a permanent scar?

A.    DPT
B.    BCG
C.    Measles vaccination
D.    Hepatitis B vaccination
 
ANM Question No 993.    A 4 week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?

A.    DPT1
B.    OPV1
C.    Infant BCG
D.    Hepatitis B Vaccin

ANM Question No 994.    Based on the assessment, you classified a 3-month old infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on the IMCI management guidelines, which of the following will you do?

A.    Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given
B.    Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml of Oresol in 4 hours
C.    Give the infant’s mother instructions on home management
D.    Keep the infant in your health center for close observation



ANM Question No 995.    A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, the infant’s temperature registered at 38.1 C. Which is the best course of action that you will take?

A.    Go on with the infants immunization
B.    Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside
C.    Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment
D.    Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well

ANM Question No 996.    Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of mutibacillary leprosy?

A.    3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
B.    3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
C.    5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
D.    5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
 
ANM Question No 997.    A 4-month old infant was brought to the health center of cough. Her respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the IMCI guidelines of assessment, her breathing is considered;

A.    Fast
B.    Slow
C.    Normal
D.    Insignificant

ANM Question No 998.    Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child is suffering from severe pneumonia?

A.    Dyspnea
B.    Wheezing
C.    Fast breathing
D.    Chest indrawing

ANM Question No 999.    Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. What is the best management for the child?

A.    Prescribe antibiotic
B.    Refer him urgently to the hospital
C.    Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake
D.    Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding

ANM Question No 1000.    A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category?

A.    No signs of dehydration
B.    Some dehydration
C.    Severe dehydration
 
D.    The data is insufficient


ANM Questions Sl. No 1001-1010


ANM Question No 1001.    “Public health services are given free of charge”. Is this statement true or false?

A.    The statement is true; it is the responsibility of government to provide haste services
 
B.    The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health services
C.    The statement may be true or false; depending on the Specific service required
D.    The statement may be true or false; depending on policies of the government concerned.

ANM Question No 1002.    A mother is using Oresol’ in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. You will tell her to:

A.    Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment
B.    Bring the child to the health center for IV therapy
C.    Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician
D.    Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly

ANM Question No 1003.    A 1 1/2 year old child was classified as having 3rd degree of protein energy malnutrition, kwashjorkor. Which of the following signs will be most apparent in this child?

A.    Voracious appetite
B.    Wasting
C.    Apathy
D.    Edema

ANM Question No 1004.    Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed “baggy pants”. Using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage this child?
A.    Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement
B.    Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program
 
C.    Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on the menu planning for her child
D.    Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal parasitism

ANM Question No 1005.    During the physical examination of a young child, what is the earliest sign of xerophthalmia that may observe?

A.    Keratomalacia
B.    Corneal opacity
C.    Night blindness
D.    Conjunctival xerosis

ANM Question No 1006.    Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?

A.    To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of
B.    To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs
C.    To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health
D.    To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children

ANM Question No 1007.    The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor. What part is best examined for pallor?

A.    Palms
B.    Nailbeds
C.    Around the lips
D.    Lower conjunctival sac

ANM Question No 1008.    Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. RA 8976 mandates fortification of certain food items. Which of the following is among these food items?
 
A.    Sugar
B.    Bread
C.    Margarine
D.    Filled milk

ANM Question No 1009.    What is the best course of action when there is a measles epidemic in a nearby municipality?

A.    Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 3 months
B.    Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of 100,000 IU of Retinol
C.    Instruct mother to keep their babies at home to prevent disease transmission
D.    Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to enhance their babies resistance

ANM Question No 1010.    A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to the RHU because of cough and colds. Following the IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to a hospital?

A.    Inability to drink
B.    High grade fever
C.    Signs of severe dehydration
D.    Cough for more than 30 days

ANM Questions Sl. No 1011-1020


ANM Question No 1011.    Management of a child with measles includes the administration of which of the following?

A.    Gentian violet on mouth lesions
B.    Antibiotic to prevent pneumonia
C.    Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity
D.    Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given
 
ANM Question No 1012.    A mother brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever which started 4 days prior to consultation. To determine malaria risk, what will you do?

A.    Do a tourniquet test
B.    Ask where the family resides
C.    Get a specimen for blood smear
D.    Ask if the fever is present everyday

ANM Question No 1013.    The following are strategies implemented by the DOH to prevent
mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most effective in the control of Dengue fever?

A.    Stream seeding with larva-eating fish
B.    Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
C.    Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas
D.    Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets

ANM Question No 1014.    Secondary prevention for malaria includes?

A.    Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees
B.    Residual spraying of insecticides at night
C.    Determining whether a place is endemic or not
D.    Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places

ANM Question No 1015.    Scotch tape swab is done to check for which intestinal parasite?

A.    Ascaris
B.    Pinworm
C.    Hookworm
D.    Schistosoma
 
ANM Question No 1016.    Which of the following signs indicates the need for sputum examination for AFB?

A.    Hematemesis
B.    Fever for 1 week
C.    Cough for 3 weeks
D.    Chest pain for 1 week


ANM Question No 1017.    Which clients are considered targets for DOTS category?

A.    Sputum negative cavitary cases
B.    Clients returning after default
C.    Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment regimens
D.    Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam

ANM Question No 1018.    To improve compliance to treatment, what innovation is being implemented in DOTS?

A.    Having the health worker follow up the client at home
B.    Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake
C.    Having the patient come to the health center every month to get his medications
D.    Having a target list to check on whether the patient has collected his monthly supply of drugs

ANM Question No 1019.    Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy?

A.    Macular lesions
B.    Inability to close eyelids
C.    Thickened painful nerves
D.    Sinking of the nose bridge
 
ANM Question No 1020.    You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had?

A.    Seizures a day after DPT1
B.    Fever for 3 days after DPT1
C.    Abscess formation after DPT1
D.    Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT1

More ANM Nursing Question Answers

Click here for Nursing Question Answers

Friday, October 14, 2022

Solved Multiple Choice Nursing MCQ

Solved Multiple Choice Nursing MCQ

The Solved Multiple Choice Questions of Nurses Recruitment Examination conducted to select suitable candidates by Service Commission is published below, which is collected from www.rightjobalert.com Nursing Exam Question papers page. It will be useful for preparing the future recruitment examination of Nursing Officer/ Staff Nurse

Question Paper Format: Pdf/ png

Total No. of Questions: 100

Answers Available- Click here

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Solved Multiple Choice Nursing MCQ

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Download Question paper in pdf format

Download Answer key in pdf format

Staff Nurse Nursing Officer Exam Solved Question Paper-100 Questions.pdf 

Friday, August 5, 2022

IELTS LISTENING SAMPLE TASK

IELTS LISTENING SAMPLE TASK

On Request of Many Nursing Officers/Staff Nurses trying to fly abroad to work as a Nursing Staff, we published following IELTS Listening Recording Scripts, this may help you to prepare for IELTS Exam. The sample is collected from IELTS Web.

Tape script for IELTS Listening Recording 1

You will hear a telephone conversation between a customer and an agent at a company

which ships large boxes overseas.

A Good morning Packham’s Shipping Agents. Can I help you?

B Oh yes, I’m ringing to make enquiries about sending a large box, a container,

back home to Kenya from the UK.

A Yes, of course. Would you like me to try and find some quotations for you?

B Yes, that’d be great. Thank you.

A Well first of all, I need a few details from you.

B Fine.

A Can I take your name?

B It’s Jacob Mkere.

A Can you spell your surname, please?

B Yes, it’s M-K-E-R-E.

A Is that ‘M’ for mother?

B Yes.

A Thank you, and you say that you will be sending the box to Kenya?

B That’s right.

A And where would you like the box picked up from?

B From college, if possible.

A Yes, of course. I’ll take down the address now.

B It’s Westall College.

A Is that W-E-S-T-A-L-L?

B Yes, ... college.

A Westall College. And where’s that?

Listening sample task – Form completion (to be used with IELTS Listening Recording 1)

B It’s Downlands Road, in Bristol.

A Oh yes, I know it. And the postcode?

B It’s BS8 9PU.

A Right ... and I need to know the size.

B Yes, I’ve measured it carefully and it’s 1.5m long ...

A Right.

B 0.75m wide ...

A OK.

B And it’s 0.5m high or deep.

IELTS LISTENING SAMPLE TASK

A Great. So I’ll calculate the volume in a moment and get some quotes for that. But

first can you tell me, you know, very generally, what will be in the box?

B Yes there’s mostly clothes.

A OK. [writing down]

B And there’s some books.

A OK. Good. Um ... Anything else?

B Yes, there’s also some toys.

A OK and what is the total value, do you think, of the contents?

B Well the main costs are the clothes and the books – they’ll be about £1500 but

then the toys are about another two hundred – so I’d put down £1700.

Listening sample task – Form completion (to be used with IELTS Listening Recording 1)

Answers:

1 Mkere

2 Westall

3 BS8 9PU

4 0.75 m/metre(s)/meter(s) (wide) / three(-)quarter(s) (of) (a) metre/meter (wide) /

 ¾ m (wide) / 75 cm(s) (wide)

5 0.5 m/metre(s)/meter(s) (high/deep) / (a) half (a) metre/meter (high/deep) /

 ½ m (high/deep) / 50 cm(s) (high/deep)

6 & 7 in either order

 (some) books

 (some) toys

8 1,700

Words in brackets are optional - they are correct, but not necessary. Alternative answers are

separated by a slash (/). 

Refer OET Exam Sample Questions and details at www.nursingwork.in

Multiple Choice Nursing Question Answer- Click here 

Thursday, June 9, 2022

JSSC Staff Nurse Exam Question Answers

JSSC Staff Nurse Exam CBT Model Question Answers

The JSSC Staff Nurse Recruitment Examination- CBT- Computer Based test Model Question Answers published here. you may refer other 40,000+available Nurisng question answers in this website to get good score. The present 370 Staff Nurse Vacancies will be filled by JSSC based on CBT Marks

Question No.40121. In anterior interosseous nerve injury, there is

(a) Abduction of thumb is weak

(b) Sensory loss over lateral 3 ½ fingers

(c) Defective pinch

(d) Clawing of lateral 3 fingers

Question No.40122. Every pregnant woman and her family should have

(a) A birth preparedness and complication readiness plan containing place of delivery

(b) Place in case of complication, arrangements for support person

(c) Transport, cost, possible blood donor, made in advance

(d) All of the above

Question No.40123. Estrogen harmone is secreted by

(a) Liver (b)   Ovaries

(c)   Kidneys (d)   Breasts

Question No.40124. Following is a danger sign after delivery

(a) Occasional Headache

(b) Bleeding (fresh blood)

(c) Weakness

(d) All of the above

Question No.40125.. All are true except

(a) Newborn should be breastfed after 1 hour of birth.

(b) Newborn should not be bathed on first day.

(c) The baby should be kept close to mother’s chest and abdomen.

(d) The cord of the newborn should be cleaned with water daily.

Question No.40126. When the middle slip of the extensor tendon is cut there is

(a) No deformity

(b) Swan-neck deformity

(c) Button-hole deformity (boutonniere)

(d) Mallet finger deformity

Question No.40127. Which of the following is not a danger sign in pregnancy?

(a) Vaginal Bleeding

(b) Loss of fetus movement

(c) Weight gain in woman

(d) Fits

Question No.40128. Plaster of Paris is:

(a) Calcium carbonate

(b) Calcium phospahte

(c) Calcium sulphate

(d) Calcium citrate

JSSC Staff Nurse Exam Question Answers

Question No.40129. The appropriate initial treatment of a chemical burn in

(a) Lavage with water

(b) Neutralize the chemical

(c) Apply the prescribed topical agent

(d) Wrap the patient in sterile sheets

Question No.40130. Excess of vitamin K in a new born cause which of the following condition

(a) Bleeding tendencies

(b) Hyperbilirubinimia

(c) Vomiting

(d) Haemolysis

Answers for Above Nursing Questions

Answer for Question No.40121 is Option C

Answer for Question No.40122 is Option D

Answer for Question No.40123 is Option B

Answer for Question No.40124 is Option B

Answer for Question No.40125 is Option A

Answer for Question No.40126 is Option C

Answer for Question No.40127 is Option C

Answer for Question No.40128 is Option A

Answer for Question No.40129 is Option B

Answer for Question No.40130 is Option D

Wednesday, May 11, 2022

Medical Surgical Nursing Solved Questions Part 11

Medical Surgical Nursing Solved Questions Part 11

Medical Surgical Nursing Question Answers

MS Nursing Question # 1.The most common lung cancer seen in non-toxic smokers is

  1. Large cell carcinoma
  2. Squamous cell carcinoma
  3. Adenocarcinoma
  4. Small cell carcinoma

Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma


MS Nursing Question #2. Which of the Following is the largest cranial nerve?

  1. Cranial Nerve VII
  2. Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
  3. Cranial Nerve VI
  4. Cranial Nerve IV

Correct Answer:  Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)


MS Nursing Question #3. The movement of particles from region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration is called?

  1. Osmosis
  2. Hydrolysis
  3. Filtration
  4. Diffusion

Correct Answer: Diffusion


MS Nursing Question #4. Which of the following results from severe allergic reaction producing overwhelming systemic vasodilation and relative hypovolemia?


  1. Neurogenic shock
  2. Hypovolemic shock
  3. Anaphylactic Shock
  4. Septic Shock

Correct Answer:  Anaphylactic Shock

Medical Surgical Nursing Solved Questions Part 11

MS Nursing Question #5. What is the approximate maximum air volume in the lung for normal healthy adult?


  1. 6000 ml
  2. 3000 ml
  3. 2300 ml
  4. 1300 ml

Correct Answer: 6000 ml


MS Nursing Question #6.Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into plasma?

  1. Hypotonic
  2. Acidic
  3. Alkaline
  4. Hypertonic

Correct Answer: Hypertonic


MS Nursing Question #7. The Apex of the heart is formed most by the

  1. Right atrium
  2. Left Atrium
  3. Left Ventricle
  4. Central Ventricle

Correct Answer: Left Ventricle


MS Nursing Question #8. The most common side effect of thrombolytic therapy is

  1. Compartment syndrome
  2. Acute renal failure
  3. Metabolic abnormalities
  4. Internal bleeding

Correct Answer: Internal bleeding


MS Nursing Question #9. The most serious complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a blockage known

  1. Gangrenous development of veins
  2. Formation of venous ulcers
  3. Pulmonary embolism
  4. Chronic occlusion of veins

Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism


MS Nursing Question #10. Which among the following is a colloid solution?


  1. 25% dextrose
  2. Dextran
  3. 0.9% normal saline
  4. 0.45% normal saline

Correct Answer: Dextran 0.9% 

Medical Surgical Nursing Questions-1

Saturday, May 7, 2022

ANM Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper- 50 Questions

ANM Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper- 50 Questions

ANM Question Papers 50 Questions - Part 1

1. Health is viewed as a dynamic equilibrium between man and his environment in

(A) Biomedical Concept (B) Ecological Concept

(C) Psychosocial Concept (D) Holistic Concept

2. The efforts are directed towards discouraging children from adopting harmful life

style is

(A) Primordial Prevention (B) Primary Prevention

(C) Secondary Prevention (D) Tertiary Prevention

3. Mantoux test is used to determine the following disease

(A) Diphtheria (B) Leprosy

(C) Tuberculosis (D) Typhoid

4. Rice water appearance of stool is seen in

(A) Cholera (B) Amoebiasis

(C) Giardiasis (D) Typhoid

5. The fever ascends in a stepladder fashion is seen in

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Meningitis

(C) Malaria (D) Typhoid

6. An eligible couple refers to a currently married couple wherein the wife is in the

reproductive age, which generally assumed to lie between the age of

(A) 18 and 25 (B) 18 and 45

(C) 15 and 25 (D) 15 and 45

7. The following are the characteristics of a community, except

(A) The community is not a contagious geographic area

(B) It is composed of people living together

(C) People cooperate to satisfy their basic needs

(D) There are common organizations in the community

8. The process that can help people understand better and deal with their problems and

communicate better with those with whom they are emotionally involved is

(A) Education (B) Motivation

(C) Persuasion (D) Counselling 

9. The Child Marriage Restraint Act in India is an example of

(A) Regulatory approach (B) Service approach

(C) Health education approach (D) Primary healthcare approach

10. The degree to which the message to be communicated is perceived as trustworthy by

receiver

(A) Reinforcement (B) Credibility

(C) Comprehension (D) Motivation

11. Koplik's spots are typical feature of

(A) Chicken pox (B) Herpes zoster

(C) Small pox (D) Measles

12. An Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) for a population of

(A) 400 (B) 600

(C) 800 (D) 1000

13. The policy reaffirms the commitment of the government towards target-free approach

in administering family planning services

(A) National health policy (B) National population policy

(C) National nutrition policy (D) National policy for children

14. World Population Day is observed every year on

(A) 11th July (B) 28th July

(C) 5th June (D) 14th June

15. A sub-centre covers the population of

(A) 2000-5000 (B) 3000-5000

(C) 10000-20000 (D) 20000-30000

16. The causative organism of mumps is

(A) Paramyxovirus (B) Variola Virus

(C) Varicella-Zoster Virus (D) Arbovirus

047/2022 [P.T.O

A

5

17. For effective group discussion, the group should consist of the following number of

members

(A) 2-5 (B) 6-12

(C) 10-20 (D) 15-25

18. Vitamin D deficiency causes:

(A) Rickets (B) Night blindness

(C) Beriberi (D) Pellagra

19. Following are larval control measures except:

(A) DDT (B) Paris green

(C) Gambusia fish (D) Intermittent irrigation

20. Mosquitoes that breed in dirty water collection are:

(A) Anopheles (B) Culex

(C) Aedes (D) Mansonia

21. Richest source of Vitamin C is:

(A) Carrot (B) Milk

(C) Amla (D) Green leafy vegetables

22. More frequent form of protein energy malnutrition in India:

(A) Anemia (B) Xerophthalmia

(C) Marasmus (D) Option A & C

23. Characteristic of a mentally healthy person includes:

(A) Feels satisfied with himself (B) Well adjusted

(C) Has good self control (D) All of the above

24. Which among the following is the cause of maladjustment?

(A) Frustration (B) Tension

(C) Poverty (D) All of the above

25. Health problems of elderly persons include:

(A) Failure of special senses (B) Asthma

(C) Option A & B (D) None

047/2022

A

6

26. Sanitary latrines can decrease incidence of all except:

(A) Poliomyelitis (B) Mumps

(C) Diarrhoea (D) Cholera

ANM Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper- 50 Questions 

27. Community participation includes involvement of a community in:

(A) Disinfection of a well

(B) Construction of a small scale soak pit

(C) Safe disposal of excreta and animal waste

(D) All of the above

28. Safe water criteria include:

(A) Free from pathogens (B) Free from colour

(C) Free from odour (D) All of the above

29. All of the following are methods of sewage disposal except:

(A) Composting (B) Land treatment

(C) Oxidation ponds (D) River outfall

30. Science of health and its maintenance is:

(A) Sanitation (B) Hygiene

(C) Asepsis (D) None

31. Indication of Fecal contamination of water is due to presence of:

(A) E.coli (B) Streptococcus

(C) Staphylococcus (D) Option B & C

32. Following are common problems of mouth except:

(A) Gingivitis (B) Halitosis

(C) Periodontal disease (D) Acne

33. Aedes aegypti transmits the following disease except:

(A) Japanese encephalitis (B) Yellow fever

(C) Malaria (D) Dengue fever

047/2022 [P.T.O

A

7

34. Micronutrients are:

(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates

(C) Vitamins (D) Fats

35. Modifiable risk factors in Coronary artery disease are all except:

(A) Age (B) Hypertension

(C) Obesity (D) Smoking

36. Emergency care or treatment given to an ill or injured person before regular medical

aid:

(A) Primary prevention (B) Rehabilitation

(C) Immunization (D) First aid

37. Primary prevention of Hypertension includes:

(A) Weight reduction (B) Exercise promotion

(C) Reduction of salt intake (D) All of the above

38. Drugs which cause expulsion of gas from the stomach and intestine:

(A) Cathartics (B) Emetics

(C) Carminatives (D) Antiemetics

39. Following is not a risk factor for development of diabetes mellitus:

(A) High intake of vitamin-A (B) Excessive intake of fat

(C) Excessive intake of alcohol (D) Excessive intake of carbohydrates

40. Which of the following should be done to avoid stroke?

(A) Regular exercise (B) Reduce the amount of fat in diet

(C) Low salt diet (D) All of the above

41. Which among the following sequence of events is true?

(A) Disease – Impairment – Disability – Handicap

(B) Impairment – Disability – Handicap – Disease

(C) Disability – Handicap – Disease – Impairment

(D) Handicap – Disease – Impairment – Disability

047/2022

A

8

42. TB Multidrug regimen is given to:

(A) Prevent side effects (B) Prevent resistance

(C) Prevent pneumonia (D) All of the above

43. The best criteria for TB diagnosis is:

(A) Chest pain (B) Coughing

(C) Sputum positive (D) Breathlessness

44. The normal body temperature for an adult is:

(A) 98.6 degree F (B) 98.6 degree C

(C) 95.8 degree F (D) 95.8 degree C

45. Definition of health given by WHO includes the following dimentions except:

(A) Physical (B) Mental

(C) Social (D) Emotional

46. Immunization is:

(A) Secondary prevention (B) Primary prevention

(C) Tertiary prevention (D) All of the above

47. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

(A) Tetanus (B) Anti rabies vaccine

(C) Rubella (D) Hepatitis

48. At primary health centre level, vaccines are stored in:

(A) Deep freezer (B) Cold box

(C) Ice lined refrigerator (D) Cold room

49. Waste sharps should be disposed in:

(A) Black bag (B) White bag

(C) Red bag (D) Yellow bag

50. The entry and development of an infectious agent in the body of man is:

(A) Contamination (B) Disease

(C) Infestation (D) Epidemic 

ANM Question Papers  - Part 2- 50 Questions

Click here to download Answer Key of Above Questions

Click here to Read ANM Nursing Questions from Question No. 01-20

Click here to read all 120 ANM Question answers in pdf. 

ANM Question Answers Part 4

Click here to read Nursing Question Answers

The above Question Papers is collected from Kerala PSCAuxiliary Nurse Midwife & Junior Public Health Nurse Grade II - Insurance Medical Service & Health/ Municipal Common Service Examination condicted in the 2022

Tuesday, May 3, 2022

150 Important Nursing Exam Questions and Answers

150 Important Nursing Exam Questions and Answers

PART 39- 150+ Questions- Part 39

Nursing exam questions and answers pdf download

Click here to view the 40,000+Bundle of Nursing Question Answers Published earlier
150 Important Nursing Exam Questions and Answers

Fundamental Nursing Practice Questions

Fundamental Nursing Practice Questions

The Common Fundamental Nursing Practice Questions are published here by https://nursingwrittentestquestions.blogspot.com The Answers for the following questions available after all the questions listed.

FN Question No. #1. Gracilis, Adductor magnusThe drug used in excessive oral/respiratory secretions of the dying is

(a) Glycopyrrolate

(b) Prostigmine

(c) Nicotine

(d) Adrenaline

FN Question No. #2. Emotion can be best expressed through

(a) Gesture

(b) Language

(c) Posture

(d) All of the above

AIIMS ESIC RRB Railway Nursing Question Answer- Click here 

FN Question No. #3. Which of the following delusions common in

depression?

(a) Delusion of Nihilism

(b) Delusion of poverty

(c) Delusion of persecution

(d) All of the above

FN Question No. #4. A nurse’s highest priority for a client who has returned to the nursing unit at nephrectomy is

(a) Hourly urine output

(b) Temperature

(c) Able to turn side to side

(d) Able to sips clear liquid

FN Question No. #5. Rorschach’s projective test is designed to

measure

(a) Dreams

(b) Unconscious intensions

(c) Conscious desires

(d) Brain size

FN Question No. #6. Autonomic dysreflexia occurs in

(a) Spinal cord injury above T6

(b) Phantom limb syndrome

(c) Complex regional pain syndrome

(d) Sudek’s osteodystrophy

Fundamental Nursing Practice Questions

FN Question No. #7. In side lying position a patient is not able to abduct his hip. The power to his abductors is:

(a) Grade I

(b) Grade 2

(c) Less than grade 3

(d) Grade 3

FN Question No. #8. A motor vehicle accident victim has open fracture of right leg, severe pain in neck, grade

II shock. A trauma surgeon should

(a) Apply compression dressing to leg

(b) Transfuse one bottle of blood

(c) Post for debridement of leg wound

(d) Order CT scans of cervical spine

FN Question No. #9. La Bella indifference is related to

(a) Body dysmorphic disorder

(b) Pain disorder

(c) Somatization disorder

(d) Conversion disorder

FN Question No. #10 A client who is under risk for eclampsia, has given MgSO4 intravenously. Later she develops signs of Magnesium toxicity like sweating and hypotenion. Which of the following antidote should be administered to the client?

(a)    Calcium gluconate
(b)    Vitamin K
(c)    Protamine sulphate
(d)    Amino caproic acid

Answers for the above Fundamental Nursing Practice Questions

Answer for the FN Question No. #1 Option A

Answer for the FN Question No. #2 Option D

Answer for the FN Question No. #3 Option A

Answer for the FN Question No. #4 Option A

Answer for the FN Question No. #5 Option B

Answer for the FN Question No. #6 Option A

Answer for the FN Question No. #7 Option C

Answer for the FN Question No. #8 Option D

Answer for the FN Question No. #9 Option D

Answer for the FN Question No. #10 Option A

Thursday, April 28, 2022

Nursing MCQ Part 38

Nursing MCQ Part 38

List of Published Nursing Questions- RRB Staff CBT Question Answers Railway Staff Nurse Exam CBT Question Answers Railway Staff Nurse CBT Exam Questions with Answer RRB Staff Nurse Exam Question and Answer Railway Staff Nurse Exam Questions with Answer TRUE OR FALSE NURSING QUESTIONS Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Model Questions -Railway ESIC Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Answers-2019 Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam model Question Answers Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Questions with Answer

Nurisng MCQ Part 38

Nursing Questions- Part 37

Nursing Questions- Part 37

AIIMS Staff Nurse Exam Question Answers 100 Staff Nurse Exam Questions with Answer AIIMS Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Answers Nursing Question Answers- AIIMS Staff Nurse Exam Question Answers Nursing Officer Recruitment Exam Questions with Answer Nursing Exam Questions- First Aid Related Nursing Tough Questions with Answer Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper with Answer Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper for Download

Tuesday, April 19, 2022

Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Answers SGPGI

Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Answers SGPGI 2022

Question No #1.     Which of the following medication is contra indicated for a child with leukemia?

(a)    Acetaminophene
(b)    Propoxyphene hydrochloride
(c)    Ibuprofen

(d)    All the above

Question No #2.    Which is the type of play seen in an infant?
(a)    Solitary    (b)    Parallel
(c)    Cooperative    (d)    Competative
Question No #3.    Patau syndrome is
(a)    Trisomy 21    (b)    Trisomy 18
(c)    Trisomy 13    (d)    XXY

PGIMER Nurses Recruitment Exam Questions with Answer

TMC Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam Question Answers

Goa Medical College Staff Nurse Exam Question Answers

AIIMS Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Questions with Answer

Railway Staff Nurse Exam Question Answers

RRB Staff CBT Question Answers

Question No #4.    Which of the following is a cyanotic congenital heart disease with right to left shunting?
(a)    ASD    (b)    VSD
(c)    PDA    (d)    TGA
Question No #5.    Erythroblastosis fetalis is characterized by
(a)    Hemolytic anemia
(b)    Hyper bilirubinemia
(c)    Hypobilirabinemia
(d)    Both a & b
Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Answers SGPGI


Question No #6.    An 18 month old child is examined in a clinic  for walking disability. Which of the following
 
would be appropriate to use when assessing for developmental dysplacia of hip?
(a)    Ortolani’s sign
(b)    Barlow’s sign
(c)    Adom’s position
(d)    Trandlenburg’s sign
Question No #7.    Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that a child with meningitis has developed disseminated intra vascular coagulation?
(a)    Hemorrhagic skin rash
(b)    Edema
(c)    Cyanosis
(d)    Respiratory depression
Question No #8.    Which of the following would be an important assessment finding for an 8 month old infant admitted with severe diarrhea?
(a)    Absent bowel sounds
(b)    Pale yellow urine
(c)    Normal skin torger
(d)    Depressed anterior fontanel
Question No #9.   According to Erik Erikson’s Psychosocial development theory, a toddler experiences which of the following crisis?
(a)    Trust versus mistrust
(b)    Autonomy versus shome and doubt
(c)    Initiative versus guilt
(d)    Industry versus inferiority
Question No #10.    Which of the following initial findings would indicate the development of carditis in a child with rheumatic fever?
(a)    Heart murmur
(b)    Low blood pressure
(c)    Irregular pulse
(d)    Anterior chest wall pain

SGPGI Nurses Recruitment Exam Questions Answer Listed Below

Answer for Question No. #1 Option C
Answer for Question No. #2 Option A
Answer for Question No. #3 Option C
Answer for Question No. #4 Option D
Answer for Question No. #5 Option D
Answer for Question No. #6 Option D
Answer for Question No. #7 Option A
Answer for Question No. #8 Option D
Answer for Question No. #9 Option B
Answer for Question No. #10 Option A

Model Interview Questions with Answer SGPGI


1. Question: What is the role of a nurse in infection control?
Answer: A nurse plays a crucial role in infection control by following proper hand hygiene practices, using personal protective equipment when necessary, and implementing isolation precautions as needed to prevent the spread of infections.

2. Question: Explain the significance of continuing education for nurses.
Answer: Continuing education is crucial for nurses to stay current with advances in healthcare practices, technologies, evidence-based guidelines, and professional standards. It enhances their knowledge and skills to provide high-quality care while promoting career growth opportunities.

3. Question: Describe the importance of documentation in nursing practice.
Answer: Documentation is essential in nursing practice as it ensures accurate communication between healthcare providers, maintains continuity of care for patients, supports legal and regulatory requirements, and provides a record of interventions and outcomes for quality improvement purposes.

4. Question: How can nurses promote patient safety in clinical settings?
Answer: Nurses can promote patient safety by conducting thorough assessments, verifying patient identities before procedures or medications administration, adhering to medication safety protocols, preventing falls through risk assessment and prevention strategies, and advocating for patients' rights to receive safe care.

5. Question: How do nurses prioritize patient care in a busy hospital setting?
Answer: Nurses prioritize patient care by assessing each patient's needs, organizing tasks based on urgency, collaborating with other healthcare team members, and communicating effectively to ensure that all patients receive timely and appropriate care.

Thursday, March 10, 2022

Nursing Question Answers 37081-37090

Nursing Question Answers 37081-37090

Nursing Question Answers from serial number 37081-37090 is published here on 10/03/2022

Nursing Question # 37081.

In radial tunnel syndrome, the nerve entrapped is

(a) Anterior interosseous nerve

(b) Posterior interosseous nerve

(c) Axillary nerve

(d) Radial nerve

Nursing Question # 37082.

 Colour coding for Nitrous oxide cylinder is

(a) Black

(b) Black with white

(c) French blue

(d) Grey

Nursing Question # 37083. 

Which of the following symptoms is the indicator of imminent death?

(a) A weak, slow pulse

(b) Increased muscle tone

(c) Fixed, dilated pupils

(d) Slow, shallow respirations

Nursing Question # 37084. What is the most common client position used

for administer a cleansing enema?

(a) Lithotomy position

(b) Supine position

(c) Prone position

(d) Sim’s left lateral

Nursing Question # 37085. During the physical examination of a young

child, what is the earliest sign of xerosis that

may observe?

(a) Keratoalacia

(b) Comeal opacity

(c) Night blindness

(d) Conjunctival xerosis

Nursing Question # 37086. Acetaminophen toxicity is treated with

(a) N-Acetylecysteine

(b) Naloxane

(c) Sodium bicarbonate

(d) Flumazenil

More Multiple choice nursing Questions with Answers 

For latest Nursing Government jobs click here

Nursing Question # 37087. A male client with a history of cirrhosis and

alcoholism is admitted with consulting from

ascites. The ascites is most likely the result of

increase

(a) Pressure in the portal vein

(b) Production of serum albumin

(c) Secretion of bile salts

(d) Interstitial osmotic pressure

Nursing Question # 37088. Gomez classification is based on retardation of

(a) Weight

(b) Height

(c) Both height and weight

(d) All of the above

Nursing Question Answers 37081-37090

Nursing Question # 37089. The minimum iodine content of salt at

consumer level should be

(a) 10 ppm (b) 15 ppm

(c) 30 ppm (d) 40 ppm

Nursing Question # 37090. The risk of stomach cancer has been related to

the deficiency of

(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin D 

(c) Cobalt (d) Nickel

Answers for the above questions is listed below

Answer for the Question No.37081 is Option D

Answer for the Question No.37082 is Option C

Answer for the Question No.37083 is Option C

Answer for the Question No.37084 is Option D

Answer for the Question No.37085 is Option C

Answer for the Question No.37086 is Option A

Answer for the Question No.37087 is Option A

Answer for the Question No.37088 is Option A

Answer for the Question No.37089 is Option B

Answer for the Question No.37090 is Option A

The Earlier Published Multiple choice nursing Questions with Answers available here

Monday, January 31, 2022

BHU Staff Nurse Recruitment exam questions

BHU Staff Nurse Recruitment exam questions with Answer

Solved BHU Staff Nurse Recruitment exam model questions listed below, Going through previous exam Nursing questions and answers you can gain more knowlege and it helps you to succede in the examination. The Following Questions also asked in the ESIC Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam, RRB Railway Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam, AIIMS Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam, Navodaya Vidyalaya Samithi Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam, KIMS Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam, NIMHANS Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam.

1. Which of the following characteristic of the
fascia can cause it to develop compartment
syndrome?
(a) It’s highly flexible
(b) It’s fragile and weak
(c) It’s unable to expand
(d) It’s the only tissues within the
compartment


2. Which of the following phrases best explains the usual pattern of non-chronic gout?
(a) Frequent painful attacks
(b) Generally painful joints at all times
(c) Painful attacks with painful periods
(d) Painful attacks with less painful periods, ut pain never subsides


3. A physician tells a client diagnosed with gout that her X-rays are normal which of the
following responses would be the most appropriate when the client asks if she still hasgout?
(a) No, you’re cured
(b) Yes, X-rays are unreliable
(c) Yes, X-rays are normal in the early stages of gout
(d) Yes, X-ray changes are only seen with acute attacks


4. Gout pain usually occurs in which of the following location?
(a) Joints
(b) Tendon
(c) Longbones
(d) Areas of striated muscle


5. Which of the following mechanism’s is believed to cause gout?


(a) Overproduction of calcium
(b) Underproduction of calcium
(c) Overproduction of uric acid
(d) Underproduction of uric acid


6. A client asks for information about Osteoarthritis, which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is correct?
(a) Osteoarthritis is rarely debilitating
(b) Osteoarthritis is a rare form of debilitating
(c) Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis
(d) Osteoarthritis afflicts people over age 60


7. The treatment for osteoarthritis commonly meludes salicylate. Salicylate can be dangerous in older people because they can cause which of the following side effects?
(a) Hearing loss
(b) Increased pain in joints
(c) Decreased calcium absorption
(d) Increased bone demineralization


8. During the assessment of client, signs of osteoarthritis are noted, which of the following
assessment findings would indicate osteoarthritis?
(a) Elevated sedimentation rate
(b) Multiple subcutaneous nodules
(c) Asymmetrical joint involvement
(d) Signs of inflammation, such as heat, fever,
and malaise


9. Which of following instructions would be considered primary prevention of injury from osteoarthritis?
(a) Stay on bed rest
(b) Avoid physical activity
(c) Perform only repetive tasks
(d) Warm up before exercise and avoid repetitive tasks

BHU Staff Nurse Recruitment exam questions

10. A client with osteoarthritis want to know what it is client teaching would include which of the
following description for osteoarthritis?
(a) A systemic inflammatory joint disease
(b) A disease involving fusion of the joint in the hands
(c) An inflammatory joint disease with degeneration and loss of articular cartilage in synovial joints
(d) A non-inflammatory joint disease, with degeneration and loss of articular cartilage n synovial joints


11. Clients in the late stages of osteoarthritis often use which of the following term to describe joint
pain?
(a) Grating
(b) Dull ache
(c) Deep aching pain
(d) Deep aching, relieved with rest


12. Which of the following types of traction is used
for children who weight ended 35 lb?
(a) Bryant’s traction
(b) Buck’s traction
(c) Pelvic belt
(d) Russell traction


13. Which of the following descriptions best identifies the position
(a) Encloses the annulus fibrosus
(b) Surrounds the nucleus pulposus
(c) Located between the vertebrae and the spinal column
(d) Located between spinal nerves in the vertebral column


14. Which of the following areas of vertebral herniation is the most common?
(a) L1-L2, L4-L5
(b) L1-L2, L5-S1
(c) L4-L5, L5-S1
(d) L5-S1, S2-S3

15. A client with a recent fracture is suspected of having compartment syndrome. Assessment
findings may include which of the following symptoms?
(a) Body-wide decrease in bone mass
(b) A growth in and around the bone tissue
(c) Inability to perform active movement, pain with passive movement
(d) Inability to perform passive movement, pain with active movement


16. Compartment syndrome occurs under which of the following conditions?
(a) Increase in scar issue
(b) Increase in bone mass
(c) Decrease in bone mass
(d) Hemorrhage into the muscle
17. The hemorrhage that occurs in compartment syndrome causes which o f the following symptoms?
(a) Edema
(b) Decreased
(c) Increased venous circulation
(d) Increased arterial circulation


18. Which of the following areas would be included in a neurovascular assessment?
(a) Orientation, movement, pulses, warmth
(b) Capillary refill, movement, pulses, warmth
(c) Orientation, papillary response, temperature, pulse
(d) Respiratory pattern, orientation, pulses, temperature


19. If pulse aren’t palpable, which of the following interventions should be performed first?
(a) Check again in 1 hour
(b) Alert the nurse in charge immediately
(c) Verify the findings with Doppler ultrasonography
(d) Alert the physician immediately


20. To reduce the roughness of a cast, which of the following measures should be used?
(a) Petal the edge
(b) Elevate the limb
(c) Break off the rough area
(d) Distribute pressure evenly

Answers for the Above Questions

Question #1 C
Question #2 C
Question #3 C
Question #4 A
Question #5 C
Question #6 C
Question #7 A
Question #8 C 
Question #9 D 
Question #10 D
Question #11 A
Question #12 A
Question #13 C
Question #14 C
Question #15 C
Question #16 D
Question #17 A
Question #18 B
Question #19 C
Question #20 A

Another BHU staff nurses recruitment exam question answers