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ANM Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper- 50 Questions

ANM Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper- 50 Questions

ANM Question Papers 50 Questions - Part 1

1. Health is viewed as a dynamic equilibrium between man and his environment in

(A) Biomedical Concept (B) Ecological Concept

(C) Psychosocial Concept (D) Holistic Concept

2. The efforts are directed towards discouraging children from adopting harmful life

style is

(A) Primordial Prevention (B) Primary Prevention

(C) Secondary Prevention (D) Tertiary Prevention

3. Mantoux test is used to determine the following disease

(A) Diphtheria (B) Leprosy

(C) Tuberculosis (D) Typhoid

4. Rice water appearance of stool is seen in

(A) Cholera (B) Amoebiasis

(C) Giardiasis (D) Typhoid

5. The fever ascends in a stepladder fashion is seen in

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Meningitis

(C) Malaria (D) Typhoid

6. An eligible couple refers to a currently married couple wherein the wife is in the

reproductive age, which generally assumed to lie between the age of

(A) 18 and 25 (B) 18 and 45

(C) 15 and 25 (D) 15 and 45

7. The following are the characteristics of a community, except

(A) The community is not a contagious geographic area

(B) It is composed of people living together

(C) People cooperate to satisfy their basic needs

(D) There are common organizations in the community

8. The process that can help people understand better and deal with their problems and

communicate better with those with whom they are emotionally involved is

(A) Education (B) Motivation

(C) Persuasion (D) Counselling 

9. The Child Marriage Restraint Act in India is an example of

(A) Regulatory approach (B) Service approach

(C) Health education approach (D) Primary healthcare approach

10. The degree to which the message to be communicated is perceived as trustworthy by

receiver

(A) Reinforcement (B) Credibility

(C) Comprehension (D) Motivation

11. Koplik's spots are typical feature of

(A) Chicken pox (B) Herpes zoster

(C) Small pox (D) Measles

12. An Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) for a population of

(A) 400 (B) 600

(C) 800 (D) 1000

13. The policy reaffirms the commitment of the government towards target-free approach

in administering family planning services

(A) National health policy (B) National population policy

(C) National nutrition policy (D) National policy for children

14. World Population Day is observed every year on

(A) 11th July (B) 28th July

(C) 5th June (D) 14th June

15. A sub-centre covers the population of

(A) 2000-5000 (B) 3000-5000

(C) 10000-20000 (D) 20000-30000

16. The causative organism of mumps is

(A) Paramyxovirus (B) Variola Virus

(C) Varicella-Zoster Virus (D) Arbovirus

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A

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17. For effective group discussion, the group should consist of the following number of

members

(A) 2-5 (B) 6-12

(C) 10-20 (D) 15-25

18. Vitamin D deficiency causes:

(A) Rickets (B) Night blindness

(C) Beriberi (D) Pellagra

19. Following are larval control measures except:

(A) DDT (B) Paris green

(C) Gambusia fish (D) Intermittent irrigation

20. Mosquitoes that breed in dirty water collection are:

(A) Anopheles (B) Culex

(C) Aedes (D) Mansonia

21. Richest source of Vitamin C is:

(A) Carrot (B) Milk

(C) Amla (D) Green leafy vegetables

22. More frequent form of protein energy malnutrition in India:

(A) Anemia (B) Xerophthalmia

(C) Marasmus (D) Option A & C

23. Characteristic of a mentally healthy person includes:

(A) Feels satisfied with himself (B) Well adjusted

(C) Has good self control (D) All of the above

24. Which among the following is the cause of maladjustment?

(A) Frustration (B) Tension

(C) Poverty (D) All of the above

25. Health problems of elderly persons include:

(A) Failure of special senses (B) Asthma

(C) Option A & B (D) None

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26. Sanitary latrines can decrease incidence of all except:

(A) Poliomyelitis (B) Mumps

(C) Diarrhoea (D) Cholera

ANM Nurses Recruitment Exam Question Paper- 50 Questions 

27. Community participation includes involvement of a community in:

(A) Disinfection of a well

(B) Construction of a small scale soak pit

(C) Safe disposal of excreta and animal waste

(D) All of the above

28. Safe water criteria include:

(A) Free from pathogens (B) Free from colour

(C) Free from odour (D) All of the above

29. All of the following are methods of sewage disposal except:

(A) Composting (B) Land treatment

(C) Oxidation ponds (D) River outfall

30. Science of health and its maintenance is:

(A) Sanitation (B) Hygiene

(C) Asepsis (D) None

31. Indication of Fecal contamination of water is due to presence of:

(A) E.coli (B) Streptococcus

(C) Staphylococcus (D) Option B & C

32. Following are common problems of mouth except:

(A) Gingivitis (B) Halitosis

(C) Periodontal disease (D) Acne

33. Aedes aegypti transmits the following disease except:

(A) Japanese encephalitis (B) Yellow fever

(C) Malaria (D) Dengue fever

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34. Micronutrients are:

(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates

(C) Vitamins (D) Fats

35. Modifiable risk factors in Coronary artery disease are all except:

(A) Age (B) Hypertension

(C) Obesity (D) Smoking

36. Emergency care or treatment given to an ill or injured person before regular medical

aid:

(A) Primary prevention (B) Rehabilitation

(C) Immunization (D) First aid

37. Primary prevention of Hypertension includes:

(A) Weight reduction (B) Exercise promotion

(C) Reduction of salt intake (D) All of the above

38. Drugs which cause expulsion of gas from the stomach and intestine:

(A) Cathartics (B) Emetics

(C) Carminatives (D) Antiemetics

39. Following is not a risk factor for development of diabetes mellitus:

(A) High intake of vitamin-A (B) Excessive intake of fat

(C) Excessive intake of alcohol (D) Excessive intake of carbohydrates

40. Which of the following should be done to avoid stroke?

(A) Regular exercise (B) Reduce the amount of fat in diet

(C) Low salt diet (D) All of the above

41. Which among the following sequence of events is true?

(A) Disease – Impairment – Disability – Handicap

(B) Impairment – Disability – Handicap – Disease

(C) Disability – Handicap – Disease – Impairment

(D) Handicap – Disease – Impairment – Disability

047/2022

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42. TB Multidrug regimen is given to:

(A) Prevent side effects (B) Prevent resistance

(C) Prevent pneumonia (D) All of the above

43. The best criteria for TB diagnosis is:

(A) Chest pain (B) Coughing

(C) Sputum positive (D) Breathlessness

44. The normal body temperature for an adult is:

(A) 98.6 degree F (B) 98.6 degree C

(C) 95.8 degree F (D) 95.8 degree C

45. Definition of health given by WHO includes the following dimentions except:

(A) Physical (B) Mental

(C) Social (D) Emotional

46. Immunization is:

(A) Secondary prevention (B) Primary prevention

(C) Tertiary prevention (D) All of the above

47. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

(A) Tetanus (B) Anti rabies vaccine

(C) Rubella (D) Hepatitis

48. At primary health centre level, vaccines are stored in:

(A) Deep freezer (B) Cold box

(C) Ice lined refrigerator (D) Cold room

49. Waste sharps should be disposed in:

(A) Black bag (B) White bag

(C) Red bag (D) Yellow bag

50. The entry and development of an infectious agent in the body of man is:

(A) Contamination (B) Disease

(C) Infestation (D) Epidemic 

ANM Question Papers  - Part 2- 50 Questions

Click here to download Answer Key of Above Questions

Click here to Read ANM Nursing Questions from Question No. 01-20

Click here to read all 120 ANM Question answers in pdf. 

ANM Question Answers Part 4

Click here to read Nursing Question Answers

The above Question Papers is collected from Kerala PSCAuxiliary Nurse Midwife & Junior Public Health Nurse Grade II - Insurance Medical Service & Health/ Municipal Common Service Examination condicted in the 2022

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