Nursing Questions with Answer- Dec 2017

Q. No. 1. Pseudo membraneous colitis is due to
A. Tetenus toxins
B. Clostridium difficile
C. H.pylori
D. E- Coli

Q. No. 2. Which organ in the body always recieve the most percentage of blood(%cardiac output)flow?.(AIIMS,ME,BPSC )
A. Kidney
B. Lung
C. Brain
D. Heart
Answer: B.  Lung

Q. No. 3. In adults, Normal endotracheal suction pressure?
A. 40-90 mm of Hg
B. 70-140 mm of Hg
C. 130- 180 mm of Hg
D. 180-320 mm of Hg
Answer: B. 70-140 mm of Hg


Q. No. 4.The stool guaiac test (gFOBT) for the detection of...?
A. Piles
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Colo-Rectol carcinoma
Answer: D. Colo-Rectol carcinoma

Q. No. 5.  A resident who is incontinent of urine has an increased risk of developing (prometric saudi2016)
A. dementia.
B. urinary tract infections.
C. dehydration
D. pressure sore
Answer;

Q. No. 6.  A resident is on a bladder retraining program. The nurse aide can expect the resident to
A . Have a fluid intake restriction to prevent sudden urges to urinate.
B . Wear an incontinent brief in case of an accident.
C . Have an indwelling urinary catheter.
D . Have aschedule for toileting.

Q. No. 7. What is the first choice of MI
a)Ecospirin
b)Streptokinase
c)Morphine
d)Heparin

Answer: d)Heparin

Q. No. 8. In a client with chronic bronchitis, which sign would lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure?
A. Cyanosis of the lips
B. Bilateral crackles
C. Productive cough
D. Leg edema


Q. No. 9. The procedure involves removal of the "head" (wide part) of the pancreas, the duodenum, a portion of the common bile duct, gallbladder, and sometimes part of the stomach.And anastomosis to jejunum ?
A. Subtotal cholecystectomy
B. Birloth 2 procedures
C. Birloth 1procedures
D. Wipple procedures
Answer: D. Wipple procedures

Q. No. 10. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test (UPT)is:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone
Answer: C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

Q. No. 11. Which of the following, if observed as a sudden change in the resident, is considered a possible warning sign of a stroke?
A. Slurred speech
B. Contractures
C.  Dementia
D. Irregular heartbeat
Answer:A. Slurred speech 

Q. No. 12 Glomerulonephritis is the complication of impetigo due to...?
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococci
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella


Q. No. 13. A client with a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock is placed on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IAPB). If the device is functioning properly, the balloon inflates when the:
A. tricuspid valve is closed.
B. pulmonic valve is open.
C. aortic valve is closed.
D. mitral valve is closed

Q. No. 14. World Cancer day is ...?
A. February 4
B. December 1
C. January 30
D. March 7
Answer: A. February 4

Q. No. 15. A client with a fluid volume deficit is receiving an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in water and lactated Ringer's solution at 125 ml/hour. Which data collection finding indicates the need for additional I.V. fluids?

A. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
B. Temperature of 99.6° F (37.6° C)
C. Neck vein distention
D. Dark amber urine
Answer: D

TSPSC STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS

Q.1. Early sign of DIC
A. Pain
B. Vascular obstruction
C. Clot formation
D. Hematuria
Answer: D. Hematuria

Q.2.Which is the following largest and most muscular chamber of heart
a)right atrium
b)right ventricle
c)left ventricle
d)left atrium

Answer: c)left ventricle

Q.3. Uterine contractions monitored by .............?
A. Friedman's curve
B. Tonometer
C.Tocodynamo meter
D. Fetoscope
Answer: C.Tocodynamo meter

Q.4. Which of the following drug shows drug holiday
a)Ecospirin
b)streptokinase
c)morphine
d)digoxin

Q.5. The Ward nurse administering mannitol and the doctor advised slowly to be given. Why?

The risk for ---?

A. Pulmonary edema

B. cerebral embolism

C.hypertension

D. Fluid overload

Answer: A. Pulmonary edema

Q.6. The nurse is collecting data on a client before surgery. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse to the presence of risk factors for postoperative complications?

A "I haven't been able to eat anything solid for the past 2 days."

B. "I've never had surgery before."

C. "I had an operation 2 years ago, and I don't want to have another one."

D. "I've cut my smoking down from two packs to one pack per day."

Answer: D

Q.7. The physician prescribes morphine 4 mg I.V. every 2 hours as needed for pain. The nurse should be on the alert for which adverse reaction to morphine?

A. Tachycardia

B. Hypertension

C. Neutropenia

D. Respiratory depression

Answer: D

Q.8. Highest degree of abortion seen among
A. Husband with A blood group and wife with O group
B. Husband with O blood group and wife with A group
C. Husband with A blood group and wife with B group
D. Husband with AB blood group and wife with O group
Answer: A

Q.9. Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of:
A. Iron
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Digoxin
D. Beta blockers
Answer: A


Q.10. The nurse is preparing to teach a client how to use crutches. Before initiating the lesson, the nurse performs an assessment on the client.The priority nursing assessment should include which focus?
A. The client's feelings about the restricted mobility
B. The client's fear related to the use of the crutches
C. The client's muscle strength and previous activity level
D. The client's understanding of the need for increased mobility
Answer: C

Q.11. Most specific enzyme for MI?
A.CPK-M,
B.CPK-BB,
C.CPK-MB,
D.LDH,
Answer: C.CPK-MB,

Q.12. The nurse has developed a plan of care for a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which client problem should the nurse select as the priority in the plan of care?
A. Malnutrition
B. Inability to cope
C. Concern about body appearance
D. Lack of knowledge about nutrition
Answer: A

Q.13. What is the most appropriate method to use when drawing blood from a child with hemophilia?
A. Use finger punctures for lab draws.
B. Be prepared to administer platelets for prolonged bleeding.
C. Apply heat to the extremity before venipunctures.
D. Schedule all labs to be drawn at one time.
Answer: D

Q.14. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhoea after delivery or in postpartum period..(in proper lactating women)..??
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. FSH
D. LH
Answer: B

Q.15 Why should an infant be quiet and seated upright when the nurse checks his fontanels?
A. The mother will have less trouble holding a quiet, upright infant.
B. Lying down can cause the fontanels to recede, making assessment more difficult.
C. The infant can breathe more easily when sitting up.
D. Lying down and crying can cause the fontanels to bulge.
Answer: D

Q.16. Which trait is the most important for ensuring that a nurse-manager is effective?
A. Communication skills
B. Clinical abilities
C. Health care experience
D. Time management skills
Answer :A

Q.17. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with renal calculi?
A. Risk for infection
B. Functional urinary incontinence
C. Ineffective tissue perfusion
D. Decreased cardiac output
Answer: A. Risk for infection


Q.18. Most common site of hematoma during postpartum period?
A. Uterine hematoma
B.Vaginal hematoma
C.cervical hematoma
D. Vulvar hematoma
Answer: D. Vulvar hematoma

Q.19. The physician orders an I.M. injection for a client. Which factor may affect the drug absorption rate from an I.M. injection site?
A. Muscle tone
B. Muscle strength
C. Blood flow to the injection site
D. Amount of body fat at the injection site
Answer: C. Blood flow to the injection site

Q.20. After TURP, the client having continues bladder irrigation. Which of these statements explain the reason for continuous bladder irrigation?
a.To dilute urine
b.  To remove clot from the bladder
c. To maintain the patency of the bladder
d. To maintain the patency of the catheter
Answer: b.  To remove clot from the bladder

Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam Questions with Answer

Q. 1. The nurse is assessing the reflexes of a newborn. The nurse assesses which of the following reflexes by placing a finger in the newborn’s mouth?
A. Moro reflex
B. Sucking reflex
C. Rooting reflex
D. Babinski reflex
Answer: B

Q. 2.The nurse is preparing to administer an I.M. injection in a client with a spinal cord injury that has resulted in paraplegia. Which of the following muscles is best site for the injection in this case?
A. Deltoid.
B. Dorsal gluteal.
C. Vastus lateralis.
D. Ventral gluteal.
Answer: A

Q. 3.The primary goal of therapy for a client with pulmonary edema and heart failure?
A Enhance comfort
B Improve respiratory status
C Peripheral edema decreased
D Increase cardiac output
Answer: D

Q. 4.A client says to the nurse "I know that I'm going to die." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be best?
A. "We have special equipment to monitor you and your problem."
B. "Don't worry. We know what we're doing and you aren't going to die."
C. "Why do you think you're going to die?"
D. "Oh no, you're doing quite well considering your condition."

Q. 5. The nurse is to collect a sputum specimen from a client. The best time to collect this specimen is:
A. early in the evening.
B. anytime during the day.
C. in the morning, as soon as the client awakens.
D. before bedtime.
Answer: C Because sputum accumulates in the lungs during sleep, the nurse should collect a sputum specimen in the morning, as soon as the client awakens and before he eats or drinks. This specimen will be concentrated, increasing the likelihood of an accurate culture

Q. 6. Which type of nursing intervention does the nurse perform when she administers oral care to a client?
A. Psychomotor.
B. Educational.
C. Maintenance.
D. Supervisory.
Answer:c

Q. 7. On her 3rd postpartum day, a client complains of chills and aches. Her chart shows that she has had a temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) for the past 2 days. The nurse assesses foul-smelling, yellow lochia. What do these findings suggest?
A. Lochia alba
B. Lochia serosa
C. Localized infection
D. Cervical laceration

Q. 8. What is the term used for normal respiratory rhythm and depth in a client?
A. Eupnea
B. Apnea
C. Bradypnea
D. Tachypnea


Q. 9. An obese client has returned to the unit after receiving sedation and electroconvulsive therapy. The nurse requests assistance moving the client from the stretcher to the bed. There are 2 people available to assist. Which of the following is the best method of transfer for this patient?
A. Carry lift.
B. Sliding board.
C. Lift sheet transfer.
D. Hydraulic lift.
Answer:B
Q. 10. A client receives a painkiller. Thirty minutes
later , The nurse asks the client if the pain is
relieved. Which step of nursing process the
nurse is using?
A. Assessment
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation

Q. 11. A dull percussion is noted over the symphysis pubis , it may indicate
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Prostatitis
C. Peritonitis
D. Distended Bladder
Answer: D

Q. 12. A nurse is assessing a group of clients. The nurse knows that which of the following clients is at risk for fluid volume deficit?(DHA)
a) Client diagnosed with liver cirrhosis.
b) Client with diminished kidney function.
c) Client diagnosed with congestive heart failure.
d) Client attached to a colostomy bag.
Answer: D

Q.13. Best time to check IOP?
A. Early morning
B. After noon
C. Late evening
D. At noon
Answer: A


Q14. The physician teaches a client about the need to increase her intake of calcium. At a follow-up appointment, the nurse asks the client which foods she has been consuming to increase her calcium intake. Which answer suggests that teaching about calcium-rich foods was effective?
A. Broccoli and nuts
B. Yogurt and kale
C. Bread and shrimp
D. Beans and potatoes
Answer: B

Q15. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a stroke. Because of the stroke, the client has dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Which intervention by the nurse is best for preventing aspiration?
A. Placing the client in high Fowler's position to eat.
B. Offering liquids and solids together.
C. Keeping liquids thinned.
D. Placing food on the affected side of the mouth.
Answer: A

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MOH FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS

MOH FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS

The Frequently asked questions published in Ministry of Health website is published here. The Multiple Choice Questions with Answers are published at the bottom of this post

1. What is the name of AIDS in Greek?
2. What causes AIDS – a microbe or a virus?
3. Which is the mode of action of HIV in the human body?
4. How easily is HIV destroyed?
5. Which body fluids contain the AIDS virus?
6. Which are the modes of transmission of AIDS?

1. What is the name of AIDS in Greek?

2. What causes AIDS – a microbe or a virus?

AIDS is caused by a virus, the Human Immune Deficiency Virus or HIV, that belongs to the retroviruses group, is spherical in shape and contains RNA.

3. Which is the mode of action of HIV in the human body?
HIV has the ability to attack the T-lymphocytes which are part of our defense against microorganisms. When the T-lymphocytes are affected by the virus, their ability to produce antibodies is impaired, so that the human body can no longer fight infections effectively.

Nursing 

Nursing Practice Questions with Answer-2021- Click here

4. How easily is HIV destroyed?
While HIV is very toxic in the human body, it is easily destroyed in the environment. The virulence of the virus decreases by 90-95% within a few hours of exposure outside the body and it varies accordingly to the concentration of the virus. In very high concentrations it may last up to 1-3 days. It is destroyed instantly by chlorine solution and by alcohol.

5. Which body fluids contain the AIDS virus?

The AIDS virus has been traced in almost all body fluids. Fluids containing the virus in a concentration which is high enough to cause the infection are blood, sperm, vaginal and cervical fluids and maternal milk.

6. Which are the modes of transmission of AIDS?
AIDS is transmitted through the following:
1. Sexual intercourse
2. Trasnfusion with infected blood
3. Contact with infected blood (common use of needle or syringe, accidental puncture with a used needle)
4. Transmission from mother to child during pregnancy or breastfeeding

MOH FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS-2021

1.A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and thready pulses,hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The patient reports weight loss, lethargy, and decreased urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine specific gravity. The nurse should suspect:
A. Renal failure
B. Sepsis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dehydration
Answer:D

2. To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:
A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the patient
Answer:B

3.A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse should
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the feet
Answer:D

4. A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:
A. Generalized burning sensation
B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by food
Answer:D

5.Cellulitis on the floor of mouth is known as...???
A. Stomatitis
B. Glositis
C. Angina pectoris
D. Angina Ludovici
E. Gingivitis
Answer:D ludwing's angina

6. Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would indicate this complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site
Answer:D

MOH FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS-2020

7. The nurse is to collect a sputum specimen from a client. The best time to collect this specimen is:
A. early in the evening.
B. anytime during the day.
C. in the morning, as soon as the client awakens.
D. before bedtime.
Answer: C Because sputum accumulates in the lungs during sleep, the nurse should collect a sputum specimen in the morning, as soon as the client awakens and before he eats or drinks. This specimen will be concentrated, increasing the likelihood of an accurate culture

8.client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should the nurse assess first?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Cardiac rhythm
Answer: D

9.A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best response of the
nurse to this order is to:
A. Give the dose immediately and once
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary
Answer:A

10.Method to diagnosis & locate seizures?
A. EEG
B. PET
C. MRI
D. CT scan
Answer: A

11.The primary goal of therapy for a client with pulmonary edema and heart failure?
A Enhance comfort
B Improve respiratory status
C Peripheral edema decreased
D Increase cardiac output
Answer: D


12.The nurse is preparing to administer an I.M. injection in a client with a spinal cord injury that has resulted in paraplegia. Which of the following muscles is best site for the injection in this case?
A. Deltoid.
B. Dorsal gluteal.
C. Vastus lateralis.
D. Ventral gluteal.
Answer: A

MOH FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (repeated)

13. The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. The physician orders 600 mg of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) oral suspension to be given once per day. The medication label indicates that the strength is 150 mg/5ml. How many milliliters of medication should the nurse pour to administer the correct dose?
A. 2.5 ml
B. 4 ml
C. 10 ml
D. 20 ml
Answer: D
14. An obese client has returned to the unit after receiving sedation and electroconvulsive therapy. The nurse requests assistance moving the client from the stretcher to the bed. There are 2 people available to assist. Which of the following is the best method of transfer for this patient?
A. Carry lift.
B. Sliding board.
C. Lift sheet transfer.
D. Hydraulic lift.
Answer:B

15.The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?
A. Administration of cough suppressants
B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Answer is B: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day. Secretion removal is enhanced with adequate hydration which thins and liquefies secretions.

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NCLEX QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER- NOV 2017

1. The client is admitted to the unit after a motor vehicle accident with a temperature of 102°F rectally. The nurse is aware that the most likely explanation for the elevated temperature is:
❍ A. There was damage to the hypothalamus.
❍ B. He has an infection from the abrasions to the head and face.
❍ C. He will require a cooling blanket to decrease the temperature.
❍ D. There was damage to the frontal lobe of the brain.

Answer A is correct. Damage to the hypothalamus can result in an elevated temperature because this portion of the brain helps to regulate body temperature. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no data to support the possibility of an infection, a cooling blanket might not be required, and the frontal lobe is not responsible for regulation of the body temperature.

2. The nurse is evaluating the client’s pulmonary artery pressure. The nurse is aware that this test will evaluate:
❍ A. Pressure in the left ventricle
❍ B. The systolic, diastolic, and mean pressure of the pulmonary artery
❍ C. The pressure in the pulmonary veins
❍ D. The pressure in the right ventricle

Answer B is correct. The pulmonary artery pressure will measure the pressure during systole, diastole, and the mean pressure in the pulmonary artery. It will not measure the pressure in the left ventricle, the pressure in the pulmonary veins, or the pressure in the right ventricle. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

3. The nurse notes the patient care assistant looking through the personal items of the client with cancer. Which action should be taken by the registered nurse?

❍ A. Notify the police department as a robbery
❍ B. Report this behavior to the charge nurse
❍ C. Monitor the situation and note whether any items are missing
❍ D. Ignore the situation until items are reported missing

Answer B is correct. The best action at this time is to report the incident to the charge nurse. Further action might be needed, but it should be determined by the charge nurse. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because notifying the police is overreacting at this time, and monitoring or ignoring the situation is an inadequate response.

4.  The doctor has ordered 80mg of furosemide (Lasix) two times per day. The nurse notes the patient’s potassium level to be 2.5meq/L. The nurse should:
❍ A. Administer the Lasix as ordered
❍ B. Administer half the dose
❍ C. Offer the patient a potassium-rich food
❍ D. Withhold the drug and call the doctor

Answer D is correct. The potassium level of 2.5meq/L is extremely low. The normal is 3.5–5.5meq/L. Lasix (furosemide) is a nonpotassium sparing diuretic, so answer A is incorrect. The nurse cannot alter the doctor’s order, as stated in answer B, and answer C will not help with this situation.

5. The doctor has ordered a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) unit for the client with chronic back pain. The nurse teaching the client with a TENS unit should tell the client:
❍ A. “You may be electrocuted if you use water with this unit.”
❍ B. “Please report skin irritation to the doctor.”
❍ C. “The unit may be used anywhere on the body without fear of adverse reactions.”
❍ D. “A cream should be applied to the skin before applying the unit.”

Answer B is correct. Skin irritation can occur if the TENS unit is used for prolonged periods of time. To prevent skin irritations, the client should change the location of the electrodes often. Electrocution is not a risk because it uses a battery pack; thus, answer A is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the unit should not be used on sensitive areas of the body. Answer D is incorrect because no creams are to be used
with the device.


6. The nurse is assessing the client admitted for possible oral cancer. The nurse identifies which of the following as a late-occurring symptom of oral cancer?
❍ A. Warmth
❍ B. Odor
❍ C. Pain
❍ D. Ulcer with flat edges

Answer C is correct. Pain is a late sign of oral cancer. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect
because a feeling of warmth, odor, and a flat ulcer in the mouth are all early
occurrences of oral cancer.

7. The nurse is caring for the client who has been in a coma for 2 months. He has signed a donor card, but the wife is opposed to the idea of organ donation. How should the nurse handle the topic of organ donation with the wife?
❍ A. Contact organ retrieval to come talk to the wife
❍ B. Tell her that because her husband signed a donor card, the hospital has the right to take the organs
upon the death of her husband
❍ C. Drop the subject until a later time
❍ D. Refrain from talking about the subject until after the death of her husband

Answer A is correct. Contacting organ retrieval to talk to the family member is the best choice because a trained specialist has the knowledge to assist the wife with making the decision to donate or not to donate the client’s organs. The hospital will certainly honor the wishes of family members even if the patient has signed a donor card. Answer B is incorrect; answer C might be done, but there might not be time; and
answer D is not good nursing etiquette and, therefore, is incorrect.

8. An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery followed by chemotherapy with a fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV medication?
❍ A. Discard the solution and order a new bag
❍ B. Warm the solution
❍ C. Continue the infusion and document the finding
❍ D. Discontinue the medication


Answer A is correct. Crystals in the solution are not normal and should not be administered to the client. Discard the bad solution immediately. Answer B is incorrect because warming the solution will not help. Answer C is incorrect, and answer D requires a doctor’s order.

9. The home health nurse is planning for the day’s visits. Which client should be seen first?
❍ A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
❍ B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
❍ C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
❍ D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally
placed venous catheter

Answer D is correct. The priority client is the one with multiple sclerosis who is being treated with cortisone via the central line. This client is at highest risk for complications. MRSA, in answer C, is methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureas. Vancomycin is the drug of choice and can be administered later, but its use must be scheduled at specific times of the day to maintain a therapeutic level. Answers A and B are incorrect because these clients are more stable.

10. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorroidectomy?
❍ A. High-fiber
❍ B. Low-residue
❍ C. Bland
❍ D. Clear-liquid

Answer D is correct. After surgery, the client will be placed on a clear-liquid diet and progressed to a regular diet. Stool softeners will be included in the plan of care, to avoid constipation. Later, a high-fiber diet, in answer A, is encouraged, but this is not the first diet after surgery. Answers B and C are not diets for this type of surgery.

STAFF NURSES RECRUITMENT MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION ANSWERS

Question No. 1:-New vaccine which has been included in WHO immunization schedule
 A:-HBV
 B:-Measles vaccine
 C:-OPV
 D:-TT
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question No. 2:-Zoonotic diseases are
 A:-Disease transmitted by rodents
 B:-Disease transmitted by arthropods
 C:-Disease transmitted from man to animals
 D:-Disease transmitted from animals to man
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question No. 3:-Maintenance of posture and equilibrium is the function of
 A:-Cerebellum
 B:-Cerebrum
 C:-Medulla oblongata
 D:-Pons
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question No. 4 :-Which of the following is NOT present in the left lung
 A:-Upper lobe
 B:-Middle lobe
 C:-Lower lobe
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B


Question No. 5:-Whooping cough is caused by
 A:-Pasteurella pestis
 B:-Bordetella pertussis
 C:-Actinobacillus mallei
 D:-Bacillus thuringiensis
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question No. 6:-Which among the following is penicillinase resistant penicillin ?
 A:-Benzyl penicillin
 B:-Carbenicillin sodium
 C:-Ampicillin
 D:-Dicloxacillin
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question No. 7:-The drug of choice for filariasis
 A:-Diethyl carbamazine
 B:-Mebendazole
 C:-Levamisole
 D:-Piperazine
 Correct Answer:- Option-A


Question No. 8:-Stiffening of the body after death is called
 A:-Livor mortis
 B:-Algor mortis
 C:-Rigor mortis
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question  No. 9:-An antibiotic used in cancer chemotherapy
 A:-Daunorubicin
 B:-Tobramycin
 C:-Novobiocin
 D:-Amikacin
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question  No. 10:-Which among the following is the first National Health Programme launched?
 A:-National Anti malaria programme
 B:-National Leprosy Eradication Programme
 C:-National filarial control programme
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

NURSING QUESTIONS - OBJECTIVE TYPE

Question #1:-Surgical intervention for hydrocephalus is
 A:-BT shunt
 B:-Glen shunt
 C:-Bidirectional shunt
 D:-VP shunt
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #2. Mrs. Katanska had a thrombotic stoke 18 hours ago. She has the following findings:
HR 85
BP 165/80 (MAP 80)
CVP 13
RR 25
Temp 38.1

Question #3. Which one of the following findings is most suggestive of pulmonary embolus?
a. Hypercarbia, hypoxemia and respiratory distress
b. Clear chest, severe hypoxemia, and respiratory alkalosis
c. Orthopnea, hemoptysis and pulmonary artery dilation
d. Cardiac enlargement, hypercarbia and increased minute ventilation

Question #4:-The term 'saturated and unsaturated fats' are related to degree of
 A:-Digestability
 B:-Taste
 C:-Colour
 D:-Density
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #5. Mrs. Sisko is admitted with atrial fibrillation and is treated with diliazem, metoprolol and
amiodarone. She is cardioverted to sinus rhythm 24 hours after admission, and develops R sided
facial droop and right hand weakness 30 minutes later. Which one of the following explanations
identifies the most likely cause of these findings.
a. Right cerebral embolus
b. Right cerebral hemorrhage
c. Left cerebral hemorrhage
d. Left cerebral embolus

Question #6. Darius is injured in a motor vehicle collision. He has a right cerebral contusion, small L subdural
hematoma and decreased motor function in his left leg. His L great toe is downgoing, and his
patellar and Achilles reflexes (knee and ankle jerk) are 0-1+. Which one of the following problems
would explain his left leg weakness.
a. Right cerebral injury
b. Left cerebral injury
c. Acute spinal cord injury
d. Peripheral nerve injury


Question #7:-Which of the following intervention is contraindicated in a patient with deep vein thrombosis of the right leg?
 A:-Elevation of the limb
 B:-Application of moist heat to the right leg
 C:-Ambulation in the hall every 4 hour
 D:-Administration of analgesics
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question #8. Mr. Sinese is admitted with a Type B aortic dissection, distal to the left subclavian. Which one of
the following interventions is the priority?
a. Labetolol
b. Metoprolol
c. Milrinone
d. Norepinephrine

Question #9:-The World Health Day theme for 2014 is
 A:-small bite, big threat
 B:-safe blood for saving mothers
 C:-progress on drinking water and sanitation
 D:-healthy blood pressure, aging and health
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #10. Mrs. Bennedict has a large anterior-lateral wall ST segment elevation myocardial infarction. She
develops severe shortness of breath, orthopnea, pink frothy sputum and jugular venous distention.
BP 160/95 HR 135 and RR 32. Which one of the following interventions is a priority?
a. Dobutamine
b. Metoprolol
c. Lasix
d. Digoxin

CLICK HERE FOR MORE NURSING QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER

STAFF NURSE EXAM MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Question #1:-Hypoxaemia refers to a partial pressure of `O_(2)` in the arterial blood below
 A:-98 mm of Hg
 B:-95 mm of Hg
 C:-90 mm of Hg
 D:-85 mm of Hg
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #2. Mrs. Kishori is a Type II diabetic with a history of TIA and congestive heart failure. She is admitted to the critical care unit for monitoring following a Hartmann’s procedure for colon cancer. Two hours post operatively, she develops new onset uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with hypotension. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Lidocaine
b. Amiodarone
c. Coumadin
d. IV heparin
Which one of the following pharmacological agents is the priority?
a. Antipyretic
b. Anticonvulsant
c. Antihypertensive
d. Beta-blocker

Question #3:-Dark brown colour of amniotic fluid indicates
 A:-Post maturity
 B:-Intra uterine death
 C:-Rh incompatibility
 D:-Accidental hemorrhage


Question #4. Calculate the PaO2:FiO2 ratio based on the following data:
FiO2 1.0 PEEP 10 PaO2 65 pH 7.34 PaCO2 45 SpO2 90%
a. .90
b. 20
c. 65
d. 35

Question #5. Mrs. Archana Vasudev has a diagnosis of asthma and is admitted with loud expiratory wheezes that are audible without a stethescope. Three hours after starting salbutamol (Ventolin) by inhalation q 1 h and after IV methylprednisolone is started (Solumedrol), her wheezes have disappeared and her chest wall movement has decreased. She has the following findings:
RR is 35 SpO2 86% BP 160/95
Which one of the following interventions is the priority.
a. Reduce the frequency of the ventolin
b. Initiate spiriva
c. Administer apresoline
d. Prepare for intubation


Question #6. Mr. Narasimha pai is admitted to the critical care unit with a closed head injury following a fall from a ladder.
He develops respiratory distress and has HR 144, RR 38, BP 60/40 and SpO2 74%. His peak
airway pressures increase and his trachea deviates to the right side. Which one of the following
interventions is the priority?
a. Mannitol
b. Norepinephrine (Levophed)
c. Right sided chest tube
d. Left sided chest tube

Question #7. Mrs. Geetha Vishnu sustains a fractured sternum and multiple fractures of right ribs #3-#6. She is on .5
PEEP 10 and Pressure Support (PS) 15 cmH20. She becomes restless with paradoxical chest wall
movement and her tidal volumes decrease to 250-300 cc. Which one of the following interventions
is the priority?
a. Analgesic
b. Sedative
c. Increase the PS
d. Increase the PEEP


Question #8:-The position given to a patient with increased intra cranial pressure is
 A:-Head end elevated to 45°
 B:-Propped up position
 C:-Supine position
 D:-Head end elevated to 30°
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #9. Mr. Shoba Karandaje Rai was admitted this morning with an acute C5-6 spinal cord injury due to an all terrain vehicle roll-over. He is currently ventilated and receiving prn analgesia. When planning his care, which one of the following interventions should be included in the plan?
a. Strict maintenance of cervical, thoracic and lumbar spine alignment
b. Neurological testing of spinal cord function q 12 h
c. Early mobilization to trauma chair with cervical collar
d. Head of bed elevation to 45 degrees with cervical collar


Question #10:-Due to Frenkel-defect the density of the ionic solids
 A:-Decreases
 B:-Increases
 C:-Does not change
 D:-Changes abnormally
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

NURSING QUESTION ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE

Question No. 1. A client has been receiving cyanocobalamine (B12) injections forthe past 6 weeks. Which laboratory finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
❍ A. Neutrophil count of 60%
❍ B. Basophil count of 0.5%
❍ C. Monocyte count of 2%
❍ D. Reticulocyte count of 1%
Find the Answer for this Question at the bottom of this post

Question No. 2. During the change of shift, the oncoming nurse notes a discrepancy in the number of Percocet (Oxycodone) listed and the number present in the narcotic drawer. The nurse’s first action should
be to:
❍ A. Notify the hospital pharmacist
❍ B. Notify the nursing supervisor
❍ C. Notify the Board of Nursing
❍ D. Notify the director of nursing
Find the Answer for this Question at the bottom of this post

Question No. 3. The physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should obtain which type of culture?
❍ A. Blood
❍ B. Nasopharyngeal secretions
❍ C. Stool
❍ D. Genital secretions
Find the Answer for this Question at the bottom of this post

Question No. 4. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in making the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction?
❍ A. AST
❍ B. Troponin
❍ C. CK-MB
❍ D. Myoglobin
Find the Answer for this Question at the bottom of this post

Question No. 5. The client with diabetes is preparing for discharge. During discharge teaching, the nurse assesses the client’s ability to care for himself. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for follow-up after discharge?
❍ A. “I live by myself.”
❍ B. “I have trouble seeing.”
❍ C. “I have a cat in the house with me.”
❍ D. “I usually drive myself to the doctor.”
Find the Answer for this Question at the bottom of this post

Question No. 6. The licensed practical nurse is working with a registered nurse and a patient care assistant. Which of the following clients should be cared for by the registered nurse?
❍ A. A client 2 days post-appendectomy
❍ B. A client 1 week post-thyroidectomy
❍ C. A client 3 days post-splenectomy
❍ D. A client 2 days post-thoracotomy
Find the Answer for this Question at the bottom of this post

Question No. 7. Which action by the novice nurse indicates a need for further teaching?
❍ A. The nurse fails to wear gloves to remove a dressing.
❍ B. The nurse applies an oxygen saturation monitor to the ear lobe.
❍ C. The nurse elevates the head of the bed to check the blood pressure.
❍ D. The nurse places the extremity in a dependent position to acquire a peripheral blood sample.
Find the Answer for this Question at the bottom of this post

Question No. 8. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of hepatitis who is experiencing pruritis. Which would be the most appropriate nursing intervention?
❍ A. Suggest that the client take warm showers B.I.D.
❍ B. Add baby oil to the client’s bath water
❍ C. Apply powder to the client’s skin
❍ D. Suggest a hot-water rinse after bathing
Find the Answer for this Question at the bottom of this post

Question No. 9. The nurse is obtaining a history of an 80-year-old client. Which statement made by the client might indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
❍ A. “My skin is always so dry.”
❍ B. “I often use a laxative for constipation.”
❍ C. “I have always liked to drink a lot of ice tea.”
❍ D. “I sometimes have a problem with dribbling urine.”
Find the Answer for this Question at the bottom of this post

Question No. 10. The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. Which equipment should be kept at the bedside?
❍ A. A pair of forceps
❍ B. A torque wrench
❍ C. A pair of wire cutters
❍ D. A screwdriver
Find the Answer for this Question below

ANSWERS FOR THE ABOVE QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALE

Q1. Answer D is correct. Cyanocolamine is a B12 medication that is used for pernicious anemia, and a reticulocyte count of 1% indicates that it is having the desired effect.Answers A, B, and C are white blood cells and have nothing to do with this medication.

Q2. Answer B is correct. The first action the nurse should take is to report the finding to the nurse supervisor and follow the chain of command. If it is found that the pharmacy is in error, it should be notified, as stated in answer A. Answers C and D, notifying the director of nursing and the Board of Nursing, might be necessary if theft is found, but not as a first step; thus, these are incorrect answers.

Q3. Answer D is correct. A culture for gonorrhea is taken from the genital secretions. The culture is placed in a warm environment, where it can grow nisseria gonorrhea. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these cultures do not test for gonorrhea.

Q4. Answer A is correct. Answer A, AST, is not specific for myocardial infarction. Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin, in answers B, C, and D, are more specific, although myoglobin is also elevated in burns and trauma to muscles.

Q5. Answer B is correct. A client with diabetes who has trouble seeing would require follow-up after discharge. The lack of visual acuity for the client preparing and injecting insulin might require help. Answers A, C, and D will not prevent the client from being able to care for himself and, thus, are incorrect.

Q6. Answer D is correct. The most critical client should be assigned to the registered nurse; in this case, that is the client 2 days post-thoracotomy. The clients in answers A and B are ready for discharge, and the client in answer C who had a splenectomy 3 days ago is stable enough to be assigned to an LPN.


Q7. Answer A is correct. The nurse who fails to wear gloves to remove a contaminated dressing needs further instruction. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they indicate an understanding of the correct method of completing these tasks.

Q8. Answer B is correct. Oils can be applied to help with the dry skin and to decrease itching, so adding baby oil to bath water is soothing to the skin. Answer A is incorrect because bathing twice a day is too frequent and can cause more dryness. Answer C is incorrect because powder is also drying. Rinsing with hot water, as stated in answer D, dries out the skin as well.

Q9. Answer B is correct. Frequent use of laxatives can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte loss. Answers A, C, and D are not of particular significance in this case and, therefore, are incorrect.

Q10. Answer B is correct. A torque wrench is kept at the bedside to tighten and loosen the screws of crutchfield tongs. This wrench controls the amount of pressure that is placed on the screws. A pair of forceps, wire cutters, and a screwdriver, in answers A, C, and D, would not be used and, thus, are incorrect.

RAILWAY STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS

Question No. 1:-Regular rhythmic uterine contraction elicited during bimanual examination is
 A:-Piskacak's sign
 B:-Jacqmer's sign
 C:-Heger's sign
 D:-Palmer's sign
Answer:- Option-D

Question No. 2. All are correctly matched except
a. decreased fibrinogen – cryoprecipate
b. increased INR – FFP
c. decreased hemoglobin – packed cells
d. increased APTT – platelets

Question No. 3:-The connecting link between glycolysis and kreb's cycle in aerobic respiration is
 A:-RUBP
 B:-Acetyl COA
 C:-Citric acid
 D:-Oxalo acetic acid
Answer:- Option-B

Railway Staff Nurse Exam Question Answers

Question No. 4:-The life span of a sperm is
 A:-12 to 24 hours
 B:-48 to 72 hours
 C:-0 to 12 hours

  D:-24 to 48 hours
Answer:- Option-B

Question No. 5:-Rate of uterine rupture in previous low vertical incision in the uterus is
 A:-0.2 — 1.5%
 B:-4 — 9%
 C:-1 — 7%
 D:-4 — 6%
Answer:- Option-C

Question No. 6:-Polarization of light is a convincing evidence of it's
 A:-Longitudinal nature
 B:-Transverse nature
 C:-Dual nature
 D:-Quantum nature
Answer:- Option-B

Railway Staff Nurse Exam CBT Question Answers

Question No. 7:-The number of doses of vitamin A syrup, a five year old child does receive?
 A:-Seven
 B:-Eight
 C:-Nine
 D:-Ten
Answer:- Option-C


Question No. 8. In emergency which blood group can be used
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O

Answer:- Option-D
Question No. 9:-Minimum Alveolar concentration of sevoflurane is
 A:-0.75
 B:-1.2
 C:-2
 D:-6
Answer:- Option-C

RRB Staff Nurse Exam Question and Answer

Question No. 10:-Red current jelly stool is seen in
 A:-Volvulus
 B:-Intususception
 C:-Malabsorption
 D:-Meckel's diverticulum
Answer:- Option-B

Click the following link to read more ESIC, AIIMS, NIMHANS, RAILWAY, UPSC, KIMS, NHM Staff Nurse Exam Questions with Answer

 

Latest Nursing Jobs updates available at nursing work dot in's Govt Nursing jobs page 

 

CLICK HERE FOR MORE MOH/ DHA NURSING EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS 

AIIMS STAFF NURSE EXAM MCQ WITH ANSWERS

Q. No. 1. After a thoracentesis, observe the client for
 A:-periods of confusion
 B:-expectoration of blood
 C:-increased breath sounds
 D:-decreased respiratory rate
Answer:-  B:-expectoration of blood

Q. No. 2. Compression - Ventilation ratio during CPR on an adult victim is
A. 5:1
B. 15:2
C. 30:1
D. 30:2

Answer:- D. 30:2

 

AIIMS Staff Nurse Exam Question Answers 

 

Q. No. 3. Which sensation does not reach the thalamic nuclei before it is relayed to cerebral cortex ?

 A:-Vision
 B:-Taste
 C:-Hearing
 D:-Smell
 Correct Answer:- D:-Smell

Q. No. 4. Increasing end tidal carbon dioxide concentration seen in capnography during anaesthesia can be due to
except
 A:-Hypoventilation
 B:-Exhausted sodalime
 C:-Pulmonary embolism
 D:-Hyper pyrexia
Answer:- C:-Pulmonary embolism

AIIMS Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Answers

Q. No. 5. Digitalis toxicity is indicated by
 A:-Visual disturbance such as seeing yellow spots
 B:-Elevated blood pressure
 C:-Skin rash over the chest and back
 D:-Increased appetite
 Correct Answer:-  A:-Visual disturbance such as seeing yellow spots

Q. No. 6. The volume of amniotic fluid at term is
 A:-100 to 200 ml
 B:-300 to 500 ml
 C:-50 to 100 ml
 D:-600 to 800 ml
Answer:-  D:-600 to 800 ml

Q. No. 7.Thought broadcast is commonly seen in
 A:-Bipolar mood disorder
 B:-Schizophrenia
 C:-Anxiety disorder
 D:-Dementia
Answer:-  B:-Schizophrenia

AIIMS Staff Nurse Exam Solved Question Paper

Q. No. 8. Which of the following vaccination is recently recommended for adolescent girls?
 A:-Tetanus toxoid
 B:-Rubella vaccine
 C:-Penta vaccine
 D:-Typhoid vaccine
Answer:-  B:-Rubella vaccine

Q. No. 9. Which of the following reaction will not result in the formation of C-C bond?
 A:-Cannizaro reaction
 B:-Friedel-Craft's reaction
 C:-Wurtz reaction
 D:-Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Answer:-  A:-Cannizaro reaction

Q. No. 10. A semiconductor diode is used to
 A:-convert dc to ac
 B:-decrease voltage
 C:-increase voltage
 D:-convert ac to dc
Answer:- D:-convert ac to dc

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• AIIMS STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS.PDF

• AIIMS STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS

• AIIMS STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTIONS

• AIIMS STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTIONS

 

 

 

MOH/HAAD QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER

1. A patient with bowlegs due to abnormal bone formations and deformities has calcium level of 7.5mg/100ml. Which of the following foods would the nurse most likely instruct the patient to add to a diet?

• Organ meats
• Whole grains
• Egg yolks
• Chicken meat

Answer: Whole grains

2. he nurse is assessing the growth and development of a healthy three year old child. The nurse should expect the child to be able to:

• Ride a bicycle
• Jump rope
• Throw a ball overhead
• Hop on one foot.

Answer: Throw a ball overhead.


3. While reviewing stress management technique with a patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, what would the nurse identify as MOST appropriate?

• Relaxing in a warm bubble bath
• Yoga in a cool room
• Sun bathing
• Cross –country running.

Answer: Relaxing in a warm bubble bath

4. When caring for a patient with an ostomy the nurse knows that extra skin protection for the personal skin is MOST important for those patients with a (an):

• Ileostomy
• Ascending colostomy
• Transverse colostomy
• Sigmoid colostomy

Answer: Ileostomy

5. The nurse calls together an interdisciplinary team with members from medicine , social service , the clergy and nutritional services to care for a patient with a terminal illness. Which of the following type of care would the team most likely be providing?

• Palliative
• Curative
• Respite
• Preventive

Answer: PalliativeT

6.A nurse is providing care to a patient with a new skin graft on the leg. The patient is upset and the nurse notes copious red drainage oozing around the dressing the nurse should immediately:

• Lift the dressing to assess the area
• Ask if the patient is having any pain
• Apply firm pressure for 10 to 15 minutes
• Assess the apical pulse.

Answer: C: Apply firm pressure for 10 to 15 minutes

7.To minimize the toddler from scratching and picking at healing skin graft, the nurse should utilize:

• Mild sedatives
• Hand mittens
• Punishment for picking
• Distractions

Hand mittens

8. Most common cause of perinatal mortality in multiple pregnancy
 A:-Dystocia
 B:-Anaemia
 C:-Interlocking
 D:-Prematurity

Answer:-  D:-Prematurity

9. A client with angina complaints that the angina pain is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often in the morning. On further assessment a nurse notes that the pain occurs in the absence of precipitating factors . This type of angina pain is best described as:

• Stable angina
• Unstable angina
• Variant angina
• Non angina pain.

Answer: Variant Angina.


10.  A patient recent underwent coronary artery graft (CABG) surgery. Which of the following nursing diagnose PRIORITY?

• Anxiety
• Impaired gas exchange
• Acute pain
• Sleep deprivation
• Answer: Acute pain

STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS 2101-2200

• 100 NURSING OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION ANSWERS PUBLISHED
• EACH OF THE FOLLOWING LINK CONSIST OF 10 NURSING QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER Sl. No 2101 to 2200
  

• MOH/HAAD QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER
• STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS 2101-2200
• NURSING QUESTION ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE
• RAILWAY STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS
• AIIMS STAFF NURSE EXAM MCQ WITH ANSWERS
• STAFF NURSES RECRUITMENT MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION ...
• NURSING QUESTIONS - OBJECTIVE TYPE
• STAFF NURSE EXAM MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
• MOH FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS
• NCLEX QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER- NOV 2017
  

• 
  

• 

NCLEX NURSING QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Question #1:-Which of the following drug is not used in the management of hyperkaleamia?
 A:-Calcium gluconate
 B:-Atropine sulphate
 C:-Sodium bicarbonate
 D:-Salbutamol
Answer:-  B:-Atropine sulphate

Question #2:-A post thyroidectomy patient in the post operative ward complaints of difficulty in breathing. On examination he had stridor and markedly swollen, tense neck. Which one is the first step in the management of this patient ?
 A:-Intubate with endotracheal tube
 B:-Perform tracheostomy
 C:-Open the wound to evacuate the haematoma
 D:-Control the bleeding site in the operating room

Answer:-  C:-Open the wound to evacuate the haematoma

Question # 3:-Order of hand washing is
 A:-back of hand, wrist, palm
 B:-wrist, palm, back of hand
 C:-palm, wrist, back of hand
 D:-palm, back of hand, wrist
Answer:-  D:-palm, back of hand, wrist


Question # 4. Treatment of Narrow Complex Tachycardia in haemodynamically unstable patient is
a. Defibrillation
b. Cardioversion
c. Amidarone
d. Ditiazem

Answer:-

Question # 5:-A person having Klinfelter's syndrome is characterized by
 A:-Having both male and female sex organs
 B:-Female with some sexual characters of male
 C:-Male with some secondary sexual characters of female
 D:-Female internal sex organs and male external sex organs
Answer:-  C:-Male with some secondary sexual characters of female

Question # 6. One ampule of Adrenaline contains
a. 1mg
b. 0.1 mg
c. 100mcg
d. 10mg

Answer:- a. 1mg


Question # 7:-Contact precautions are used in caring a patient with
 A:-Dengue
 B:-MRSA
 C:-Pneumonia
 D:-Tetanus

Answer:-  B:-MRSA

Question # 8:-Location and secretion of Leydig cells are
 A:-Liver-cholesterol
 B:-Ovary-estrogen
 C:-Testis-testosterone
 D:-Pancreas-glycogen

Answer:-  C:-Testis-testosterone

Question # 9:-Pulse Apex deficit is seen in

 A:-Aortic stenosis
 B:-Cardiac failure
 C:-Atrial fibrillation
 D:-Mitral stenosis

Answer:-  C:-Atrial fibrillation

Question # 10:-The most lethal arrhythmia is
 A:-Supra ventricular tachycardia
 B:-Atrial tachycardia
 C:-Sinus arrhythmia
 D:-Ventricular fibrillation

Answer:-  D:-Ventricular fibrillation